by jimwalton » Thu Nov 09, 2017 12:02 am
There are two possibilities here.
1. Keil & Delitzsch say, "It was thought that by chastising the flesh and letting the blood run, any impurity that would prevent the answer to the prayer would be removed from them.”
2. Walton, Matthews, & Chavalas say, "The self-laceration of this verse is part of a mourning ritual. In the Ugaritic literature the gods are portrayed as practicing this when they hear of the death of Baal. Additionally an Akkadian wisdom text from Ugarit compares the blood-letting of mourning rites to that practiced by ecstatic prophets.”
There are two possibilities here.
1. Keil & Delitzsch say, "It was thought that by chastising the flesh and letting the blood run, any impurity that would prevent the answer to the prayer would be removed from them.”
2. Walton, Matthews, & Chavalas say, "The self-laceration of this verse is part of a mourning ritual. In the Ugaritic literature the gods are portrayed as practicing this when they hear of the death of Baal. Additionally an Akkadian wisdom text from Ugarit compares the blood-letting of mourning rites to that practiced by ecstatic prophets.”