Thanks a lot!

I don't see a reason to translate it as "kings" except to make it sound more like something that describes a person. The Greek term is βασιλείαν: "kingdom." It's a accusative singular, and therefore translated better as a single thing (a kingdom as a political and social entity) rather than a plural reference (kings). Exodus 19.6 has the same type of terminology. The concept could be that the Church is the true spiritual Israel. As a people together, we exist as a kingdom—a people together under the authority of a beneficent ruler. A group defined by certain common elements that bind us together in both purpose and definition. We share a mutual king, and therefore a mutual authority, serving a common purpose. We share a common identity as people belonging to God and devoted to him.

Revelation 1:6 - is there any reasoning behind the choice to use the word "kings" instead of "kingdom" - asking because of the in-Bible implication of it (in text).

The verse I'm talking about - Revelation 1:6 New King James Version and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.

From this website: ([url]https://biblehub.com/greek/strongs_932.htm[/url]) Every other use of the word is kingdom, with one use of 'kingship' in Revelation 17:18

Is there a reason in Greek why in this setting its translated as 'king' instead of 'kingdom' or does it have something to do other than the language?

I read the following from a study: "In Israel, kings were from the tribe of Judah and the priests were from the tribe of Levi. They were mandated to stay separate. The phrase 'and hath made us kings and priests' (more details in chapter 4 and 5) is interesting because there are only three places in scripture that detail being a king and priest at the same time. In Genesis 14, Psalms and Hebrews speak of Melchizedek being a king and a priest. Another example is Jesus Christ and the third is you and I, as believers are stated in Revelation as kings and priests." Source: Book of Revelation Handbook - Chuck Missler

But if the translation isn't that exactly then it would mean there's only two places where both designations are simultaneously ascribed and that Christians are in fact not simultaneously kings and priests - but rather a ?kingdom of priests/?kingdom and priests or as described elsewhere a royal priesthood? in which case why only here is it translate kings?