Well, I'm very sorry about that. I can't begin to explain to rude behavior like that. All I can tell you is that the Bible teaches Christians to treat all people with kindness (Col. 3.12, and many others). I guess I can also say with confidence that there is no teaching in the Bible about discriminating against women as you're describing.

I would have a much easier time believing that there are nondiscriminatory explanations for this if some very religious men didn't refuse to shake my hand only because I'm a woman.

Paul Copan answers the question like this: Some claim this passage implies female inferiority: the woman is ceremonially impure for 40 days (7 + 33) after giving birth to a boy but 80 days (14+66) after giving birth to a girl. Surely, it is accused, this reveals a lower social status for females. Various sensible explanations have been proposed.

1. More days for the female actually indicates a kind of protection of females rather than a sign of inferiority.

2. The motive may have been to preserve Israel’s religious distinctiveness over against Canaanite religion, in which females engaged in religious sexual rites in their temples.

In general, a Jewish mother’s lengthier separation from the tabernacle (or temple) after giving birth to a girl made a theological and ethical statement. In ancient Near Eastern polytheism, a strong emphasis was on fertility rites, cult prostitution, and the dramatization of the births of gods and goddesses. The distance between the birth event and temple worship—especially with baby girls—was carefully maintained.

Another plausible explanation focuses on a natural source of uncleanness—namely, the flow of blood. Verse 5 refers to the reason: it’s because of “the blood of her purification.” The mother experiences vaginal bleeding at birth. Yet such vaginal bleeding is common in newborn girls aw well, due to the withdrawal of the mother’s estrogen when the infant girl exits the mother’s womb. So we have two sources of ritual uncleanness with a girl’s birth but only one with a boy’s.

Notice also that when the time of purification is over, whether “for a son or for a daughter,” the mother is to bring the identical offering (whether a lamb, pigeon, or turtledove); this is to be a purification offering (12.6)—not technically a sin offering—and its purpose is to take away the ritual (not moral) impurity.

So it's not discrimination at all.

Why are women twice as unclean as men? In Leviticus 12:1-5 it reads: "Then the LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 'Speak to the sons of Israel, saying: "When a woman gives birth and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean for seven days, as in the days of her menstruation she shall be unclean. On the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. Then she shall remain in the blood of her purification for thirty-three days; she shall not touch any consecrated thing, nor enter the sanctuary until the days of her purification are completed. But if she bears a female child, then she shall be unclean for two weeks, as in her menstruation; and she shall remain in the blood of her purification for sixty-six days." ' " (‭Leviticus‬ ‭12‬:‭1-5‬ NASB)

So what basis does God have for making mothers ceremonially unclean for twice as long for birthing a female child? There is literally no other rationale I can think of other than "women are twice as unclean as men".

Any ways to justify God's blatant discrimination based solely on genitalia?