Thank you, I've been getting many helpful answers, as my Bible knowledge isn't as deep as the people over here.

The Masoretic text is the oldest Hebrew text we have, dating to around AD 980. It reads וְאֶת-זָכָר, v-eth zakar. So that is the term actually used from the earliest record we have, and it's still the text today. If someone is claiming that the text was changed, they need to produce the manuscripts that read something different.

> but is another one that could mean either man r young boy

Zakar is used 81 times in the OT. 67 of those it means "male"; 7 times "man"; 4 times for a young boy; 2 for "humankind" (mankind); once for "him."

> and the latter could refer to the hatred of Israeli populations of that time towards pederasty

Pederasty has always been an abomination, but there's no reason to translate it that way here. Here the term zakar is contrasted with 'ishah (woman), so the translation is best read as "man" or "male."

In any case, the text hasn't changed and zakar is the term actually used.

Ok, but I've read that v'eth zakhar isnt the term actually used, but is another one that could mean either man r young boy, and the latter could refer to the hatred of Israeli populations of that time towards pederasty.

It is not true that this has been changed. There is no evidence to that effect. The verse reads (and has always read): "You shall not lie (lo tishekab, have sexual relations with) with a man (v'eth zakar, a male) as one lies with (mishkebe) a woman (ishah). That is detestable (tow'ebah, what is contrary to the inherent sense of order)."

Is it true that Leviticus 18:22 has been modified in recent times?

I've read that this infamous part of the Bible has been changed in the last century, where the word "child molester" was changed with "man". Is it true? I don't really care, I'm atheist, just curious