by Dennis Jensen » Mon Apr 13, 2015 12:13 am
Reply
@dexterslab
Sorry I missed some of your points that answered or anticipated some of my last questions and critiques. Maybe we’ll reach more clarity if we just discuss it a little more. I also may have repeated myself somewhat in the following. Thank you for your patience.
In my thinking, the big question involves the issue of the necessity of different posited means of atonement. PSA says that God had to do it this way or we could not be reconciled to God. God’s nature is such that he would have done anything that had to be done to bring us back to himself and keep us from the hell which is alienation from God. This shows us how incomprehensibly great is the Love of God. (Please remember, whenever I speak of PSA, I do not mean that God has someone else suffer for God; God endures this pain himself. If you want to critique the whipping boy brand of PSA, I will agree with most everything you say. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all endured the same suffering which was so great and so other than anything we endure that only God could endure it.)
But if Jesus’ death was just an example to motivate us to self-sacrifice and obedience unto death, this hardly seems worth the price God had to pay. God could motivate us in other ways. Whatever other possible view of atonement we might imagine, only PSA says that this is the only way atonement can be achieved. And this also seems to me to be clearly what Paul is saying in Galatians. If there were any other possible way, God would have taken it. Jesus pleaded with his Father to take this cup from him. Wouldn’t the Father have done this if there were any other possible way to bring about reconciliation with God?
PSA fits so perfectly with so much of the scriptural teaching of forgiveness of sin. Animal sacrifice is so easily explained by a PSA view and it is so difficult to understand given any other view. Phrases like dying or our sins and becoming a curse can easily have a PSA meaning, but it is difficult to see any other meaning that can feasibly be attached to them. If Luther became a curse for the Catholic Church, it was not in any way that provided salvation for them. He was willing to die for a cause, but neither did that cause bring salvation. His willingness stemmed from his obedience to Christ since Christ commanded him to be willing to give up his life rather than deny the truth he learned from God.
I don’t see how Luther being a representative rather than a substitute for his cause affects the argument. I’m not even sure what you mean by that. If you are saying Jesus is more of a representative than a substitute, then I would say a representative is a kind of substitute. If Jesus died as my representative, he still died in my place. If you mean representative in some other sense, please clarify.
My accusation about God being a moral monster in a nonPSA view stems from the notion that on any nonPSA view, Jesus need not have died. God could have brought about reconciliation by some other means and yet he did not. He brought about a needless agonizing suffering and death which was not the only way the greatest good God desired could be achieved. A good God would have chosen another way if it were available to him.
The moral monster accusation does not apply to the PSA view I presented because in this view it was God himself who chose to suffer and die. The accusation only applies to what I called a “whipping boy” PSA view. God chose an innocent one, Jesus, to suffer and die; Jesus did not want to but only obeyed out of obedience to the Father. If there were any other way salvation could be attained without a greater evil occurring, God should have chosen that way. Not taking that alternate route would have made God evil. But if the Father and Son are one in their Godhead, they both had eternally chosen the same thing; they both determined that it would be necessary to endure this pain should humankind fall. And they both determined that it would be worth creating a human race, and endure this pain they, the Godhead, did not want to endure, given the possibility that humankind would fall.
While on earth Jesus had his divine wisdom and power reduced such that he had now only the power and knowledge of an ordinary man. This we call the kenosis. All of his power to work miracles and his divine knowledge were given him by the Spirit when he needed it. When Jesus pleaded with God to take this cup from him, he no longer had the full knowledge of the eternal decision he had made in the depths of the Godhead, his decision to endure this pain. In the garden he knew only the part about not wanting to endure this pain. (Remember that the Father didn’t want to endure this pain either but he knew that he had to in order to attain salvation for the world.) With his limited knowledge while on earth, Jesus accepted this fate only out of obedience to the Father. He knew that though he couldn’t yet understand why the Father required this of him, his Father knew and would require only that which was absolutely necessary.
You say, “You asked why Jesus had to die. I gave a few answers and I don’t see how they make God a moral monster.”
I searched through your previous comments to find the reasons you gave that Jesus had to die. In fact I couldn’t find anything which couldn’t be shown to be completely unnecessary. Under any nonPSA view you presented, it can be shown that Jesus did not need to die. I did find you saying “Does God need the death of Jesus to be able to forgive? To me this doesn’t even sound like the God that Jesus revealed. . . . I think we only need to look at the Gospels to see this isn’t true.” So it sounds as though you are saying that Jesus did not need to die to bring atonement. If this is so, then God brought on Jesus unnecessary suffering and is a moral monster. I know God allows suffering to humanity, but as I pointed out earlier, God has reason for doing so that would not apply to Jesus.
In the case of Jonah preaching to the Ninevites, this gets into a new but related issue of how Gentiles living before the time of Christ were made righteous or acceptable before God. For that matter, were all people necessarily lost who lived before the crucifixion simply because the atonement had not yet been made? Some past theologians have considered this a serious problem especially given that the Scripture seems very clear that the OT saints are accepted by God.
My view is, first that the OT saints were accepted by God through animal sacrifice which anticipated Christ’s atonement. I don’t think there is really any problem that they might not accept that atonement once they find out what the animal sacrifice pointed to. The OT saints were accepted by God because they submitted completely to all that God asked of them and because of the objective means of reconciliation that the atonement would bring. They aren’t going to say to God, I’ve obeyed you all my life but now I won’t because I know what the sacrifices typify. They will obviously accept whatever means of atonement God tells them they must accept.
But what about the Gentiles living before Jesus? Paul said God overlooked or “winked at” (KJV) their ignorance but now calls all people to repent and that God left them witness of his existence (Ac 17.30; cf. 14.16-17). He said that God acted so as to draw people to seek him and find him (17.27-28). The implication seems very clear to me that they could find God even though they might still lack even the knowledge of the sacrifices which the Jews possessed. In Acts 10.34-35 Peter said that God accepts all people who fear or honor God and seek to do what is right. So those who seek God and those who honor God who know that God is there, so long as they follow the moral law that is written in their hearts, are accepted by God. Like the OT saints, they too must after death accept the atonement God has provided though, from the choices they had made before death, it is hardly conceivable that they will not.
So without taking this any further and getting into exclusivist/inclusivist controversies which could fill up numerous pages, let me just say that BC Gentiles, if I might call them that, could be accepted by God without knowing about or (for the time being) having Christ’s atonement. That does not mean that they can be saved without the atonement. It is the metaphysical work that the atonement accomplishes that saves anyone who is saved, and one must accept that atonement once God gives one this knowledge. Until one has this knowledge, God accepts the righteous BC Gentile because of their obedience and submission to God and because of the objective work the atonement will bring. If one is obedient before death, one will be obedient to God’s will after death when God reveals his will that one accept the atoning death of Jesus.
Likewise for the Ninevites, their repentance brought them forgiveness or atonement for their wickedness because of the future work Christ would accomplish by his death. Just because sacrifice was not mentioned in this case or in several other OT instances in which forgiveness is given does not mean it is not needed. Leviticus 17.11 makes it clear that it is always needed. If something is so categorically stated even just once, it should be obvious that when forgiveness is mentioned elsewhere, the writer will not need to repeat the fact that blood atonement is also needed.
You quote me as saying “God could have just told us to obey and repent.” Then you say that “God did, and in fact that is pretty much the entire Old Testament.”
But if that’s all there is to it, then Jesus didn’t need to come at all and die. Or he could have come and just preached obedience and repentance like any other prophet without dying an atoning death. He could have even claimed to be God incarnate and verified his claim by some other means than death and resurrection. Jesus and the apostles said more than just obey and repent; they said believe and trust in Jesus because of his atoning death. His blood is shed for the remission of sins (Mt 26.28); we are justified, accepted by God with our sins not counted against us, by his blood (Rm 5. 8-9); Messiah would have to suffer and rise from the dead (Ac 20.28); he died for our sins according to Scripture (1 Cor 15.3); we have redemption, forgiveness of sins, though his blood (Eph 1.7; Col 1.14, 20; 1 Pet 1.18-19); he was a sacrifice to God (5.2); he bore our sins in his body (2.24); he suffered for sins, the just for the unjust (3.18); he gave himself a ransom for us (1Tim 2.6); his blood cleanses us from all sin and is a propitiation for our sins (1Jn 1.7; 2.2; 4.10); he washed us of our sin and redeemed us to God by his blood (Rv 1.5; 5.9).
You say God didn’t want Jesus to suffer but it happened because of our sin. But you still cannot say that it had to happen. You haven’t shown that in your view God could not and would not have stopped it. God could have shown us our “system” was “broken” in some other way if he didn’t want Jesus to die. God gave Cain the power to “master” the sin which was “crouching at the door” seeking to have him. But once he sinned, only sacrifice could cover his sin.
You say, “I don’t think God used Jesus for ‘bringing about unnecessary and gratuitous suffering.’ I think suffering happened as a result of our sin, and Jesus died on behalf of our sins.”
But what does it mean to die “on behalf of our sins” if not to be a substitute who takes our sins upon himself on our behalf? If Jesus did not die as our substitute, then I just cannot see that God could not and would not have chosen another way to bring us salvation than to have him die this gruesome death. If God could have chosen another way to reconcile us to God which did not result in some greater evil and if God did not do so, then God was causing unnecessary and gratuitous suffering to Jesus.
I agree with much that you say. Atonement is more than just the death of Jesus, though I’m not sure how one might justify the claim that, say, the spreading of the Kingdom of God is part of the atonement.
Yes, the church often falls into an easy-believism in which one may simply say a sinner’s prayer and then go on with life as though nothing has happened. This is parallel to the Israelite sin of making animal sacrifice without true repentance and then continuing to do evil. I mentioned last time that Christians do need to become different than they were before; that they need to walk in holiness and that sin in their lives will bring judgment. Whether or not it is, as you say, a part of the atonement which brings the power to overcome sin, it is at least a special power or grace from God.
I hope you take my critique of your views as the searchings of a fellow believer simply seeking to understand the Scripture. I hope my thoughts will help to add some rational and biblical ideas to your pool of thinking as you seek to come to a more complete biblical theology. The problems with the nonPSA views you suggest make them just too difficult to accept in my view. A PSA view which sees the full Godhead as willingly enduring a suffering only God could endure because this was the only way we could be reconciled to God seems to me to answer the problems you see in PSA.
Reply
@dexterslab
Sorry I missed some of your points that answered or anticipated some of my last questions and critiques. Maybe we’ll reach more clarity if we just discuss it a little more. I also may have repeated myself somewhat in the following. Thank you for your patience.
In my thinking, the big question involves the issue of the necessity of different posited means of atonement. PSA says that God had to do it this way or we could not be reconciled to God. God’s nature is such that he would have done anything that had to be done to bring us back to himself and keep us from the hell which is alienation from God. This shows us how incomprehensibly great is the Love of God. (Please remember, whenever I speak of PSA, I do not mean that God has someone else suffer for God; God endures this pain himself. If you want to critique the whipping boy brand of PSA, I will agree with most everything you say. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all endured the same suffering which was so great and so other than anything we endure that only God could endure it.)
But if Jesus’ death was just an example to motivate us to self-sacrifice and obedience unto death, this hardly seems worth the price God had to pay. God could motivate us in other ways. Whatever other possible view of atonement we might imagine, only PSA says that this is the only way atonement can be achieved. And this also seems to me to be clearly what Paul is saying in Galatians. If there were any other possible way, God would have taken it. Jesus pleaded with his Father to take this cup from him. Wouldn’t the Father have done this if there were any other possible way to bring about reconciliation with God?
PSA fits so perfectly with so much of the scriptural teaching of forgiveness of sin. Animal sacrifice is so easily explained by a PSA view and it is so difficult to understand given any other view. Phrases like dying or our sins and becoming a curse can easily have a PSA meaning, but it is difficult to see any other meaning that can feasibly be attached to them. If Luther became a curse for the Catholic Church, it was not in any way that provided salvation for them. He was willing to die for a cause, but neither did that cause bring salvation. His willingness stemmed from his obedience to Christ since Christ commanded him to be willing to give up his life rather than deny the truth he learned from God.
I don’t see how Luther being a representative rather than a substitute for his cause affects the argument. I’m not even sure what you mean by that. If you are saying Jesus is more of a representative than a substitute, then I would say a representative is a kind of substitute. If Jesus died as my representative, he still died in my place. If you mean representative in some other sense, please clarify.
My accusation about God being a moral monster in a nonPSA view stems from the notion that on any nonPSA view, Jesus need not have died. God could have brought about reconciliation by some other means and yet he did not. He brought about a needless agonizing suffering and death which was not the only way the greatest good God desired could be achieved. A good God would have chosen another way if it were available to him.
The moral monster accusation does not apply to the PSA view I presented because in this view it was God himself who chose to suffer and die. The accusation only applies to what I called a “whipping boy” PSA view. God chose an innocent one, Jesus, to suffer and die; Jesus did not want to but only obeyed out of obedience to the Father. If there were any other way salvation could be attained without a greater evil occurring, God should have chosen that way. Not taking that alternate route would have made God evil. But if the Father and Son are one in their Godhead, they both had eternally chosen the same thing; they both determined that it would be necessary to endure this pain should humankind fall. And they both determined that it would be worth creating a human race, and endure this pain they, the Godhead, did not want to endure, given the possibility that humankind would fall.
While on earth Jesus had his divine wisdom and power reduced such that he had now only the power and knowledge of an ordinary man. This we call the kenosis. All of his power to work miracles and his divine knowledge were given him by the Spirit when he needed it. When Jesus pleaded with God to take this cup from him, he no longer had the full knowledge of the eternal decision he had made in the depths of the Godhead, his decision to endure this pain. In the garden he knew only the part about not wanting to endure this pain. (Remember that the Father didn’t want to endure this pain either but he knew that he had to in order to attain salvation for the world.) With his limited knowledge while on earth, Jesus accepted this fate only out of obedience to the Father. He knew that though he couldn’t yet understand why the Father required this of him, his Father knew and would require only that which was absolutely necessary.
You say, “You asked why Jesus had to die. I gave a few answers and I don’t see how they make God a moral monster.”
I searched through your previous comments to find the reasons you gave that Jesus had to die. In fact I couldn’t find anything which couldn’t be shown to be completely unnecessary. Under any nonPSA view you presented, it can be shown that Jesus did not need to die. I did find you saying “Does God need the death of Jesus to be able to forgive? To me this doesn’t even sound like the God that Jesus revealed. . . . I think we only need to look at the Gospels to see this isn’t true.” So it sounds as though you are saying that Jesus did not need to die to bring atonement. If this is so, then God brought on Jesus unnecessary suffering and is a moral monster. I know God allows suffering to humanity, but as I pointed out earlier, God has reason for doing so that would not apply to Jesus.
In the case of Jonah preaching to the Ninevites, this gets into a new but related issue of how Gentiles living before the time of Christ were made righteous or acceptable before God. For that matter, were all people necessarily lost who lived before the crucifixion simply because the atonement had not yet been made? Some past theologians have considered this a serious problem especially given that the Scripture seems very clear that the OT saints are accepted by God.
My view is, first that the OT saints were accepted by God through animal sacrifice which anticipated Christ’s atonement. I don’t think there is really any problem that they might not accept that atonement once they find out what the animal sacrifice pointed to. The OT saints were accepted by God because they submitted completely to all that God asked of them and because of the objective means of reconciliation that the atonement would bring. They aren’t going to say to God, I’ve obeyed you all my life but now I won’t because I know what the sacrifices typify. They will obviously accept whatever means of atonement God tells them they must accept.
But what about the Gentiles living before Jesus? Paul said God overlooked or “winked at” (KJV) their ignorance but now calls all people to repent and that God left them witness of his existence (Ac 17.30; cf. 14.16-17). He said that God acted so as to draw people to seek him and find him (17.27-28). The implication seems very clear to me that they could find God even though they might still lack even the knowledge of the sacrifices which the Jews possessed. In Acts 10.34-35 Peter said that God accepts all people who fear or honor God and seek to do what is right. So those who seek God and those who honor God who know that God is there, so long as they follow the moral law that is written in their hearts, are accepted by God. Like the OT saints, they too must after death accept the atonement God has provided though, from the choices they had made before death, it is hardly conceivable that they will not.
So without taking this any further and getting into exclusivist/inclusivist controversies which could fill up numerous pages, let me just say that BC Gentiles, if I might call them that, could be accepted by God without knowing about or (for the time being) having Christ’s atonement. That does not mean that they can be saved without the atonement. It is the metaphysical work that the atonement accomplishes that saves anyone who is saved, and one must accept that atonement once God gives one this knowledge. Until one has this knowledge, God accepts the righteous BC Gentile because of their obedience and submission to God and because of the objective work the atonement will bring. If one is obedient before death, one will be obedient to God’s will after death when God reveals his will that one accept the atoning death of Jesus.
Likewise for the Ninevites, their repentance brought them forgiveness or atonement for their wickedness because of the future work Christ would accomplish by his death. Just because sacrifice was not mentioned in this case or in several other OT instances in which forgiveness is given does not mean it is not needed. Leviticus 17.11 makes it clear that it is always needed. If something is so categorically stated even just once, it should be obvious that when forgiveness is mentioned elsewhere, the writer will not need to repeat the fact that blood atonement is also needed.
You quote me as saying “God could have just told us to obey and repent.” Then you say that “God did, and in fact that is pretty much the entire Old Testament.”
But if that’s all there is to it, then Jesus didn’t need to come at all and die. Or he could have come and just preached obedience and repentance like any other prophet without dying an atoning death. He could have even claimed to be God incarnate and verified his claim by some other means than death and resurrection. Jesus and the apostles said more than just obey and repent; they said believe and trust in Jesus because of his atoning death. His blood is shed for the remission of sins (Mt 26.28); we are justified, accepted by God with our sins not counted against us, by his blood (Rm 5. 8-9); Messiah would have to suffer and rise from the dead (Ac 20.28); he died for our sins according to Scripture (1 Cor 15.3); we have redemption, forgiveness of sins, though his blood (Eph 1.7; Col 1.14, 20; 1 Pet 1.18-19); he was a sacrifice to God (5.2); he bore our sins in his body (2.24); he suffered for sins, the just for the unjust (3.18); he gave himself a ransom for us (1Tim 2.6); his blood cleanses us from all sin and is a propitiation for our sins (1Jn 1.7; 2.2; 4.10); he washed us of our sin and redeemed us to God by his blood (Rv 1.5; 5.9).
You say God didn’t want Jesus to suffer but it happened because of our sin. But you still cannot say that it had to happen. You haven’t shown that in your view God could not and would not have stopped it. God could have shown us our “system” was “broken” in some other way if he didn’t want Jesus to die. God gave Cain the power to “master” the sin which was “crouching at the door” seeking to have him. But once he sinned, only sacrifice could cover his sin.
You say, “I don’t think God used Jesus for ‘bringing about unnecessary and gratuitous suffering.’ I think suffering happened as a result of our sin, and Jesus died on behalf of our sins.”
But what does it mean to die “on behalf of our sins” if not to be a substitute who takes our sins upon himself on our behalf? If Jesus did not die as our substitute, then I just cannot see that God could not and would not have chosen another way to bring us salvation than to have him die this gruesome death. If God could have chosen another way to reconcile us to God which did not result in some greater evil and if God did not do so, then God was causing unnecessary and gratuitous suffering to Jesus.
I agree with much that you say. Atonement is more than just the death of Jesus, though I’m not sure how one might justify the claim that, say, the spreading of the Kingdom of God is part of the atonement.
Yes, the church often falls into an easy-believism in which one may simply say a sinner’s prayer and then go on with life as though nothing has happened. This is parallel to the Israelite sin of making animal sacrifice without true repentance and then continuing to do evil. I mentioned last time that Christians do need to become different than they were before; that they need to walk in holiness and that sin in their lives will bring judgment. Whether or not it is, as you say, a part of the atonement which brings the power to overcome sin, it is at least a special power or grace from God.
I hope you take my critique of your views as the searchings of a fellow believer simply seeking to understand the Scripture. I hope my thoughts will help to add some rational and biblical ideas to your pool of thinking as you seek to come to a more complete biblical theology. The problems with the nonPSA views you suggest make them just too difficult to accept in my view. A PSA view which sees the full Godhead as willingly enduring a suffering only God could endure because this was the only way we could be reconciled to God seems to me to answer the problems you see in PSA.