by jimwalton » Mon Feb 24, 2020 2:51 pm
Thank you for presenting your case. I will be pleased to respond.
> First point: The authors of the Gospels don't even claim to be eyewitnesses. They were written anonymously. That's a huge barrier to the eyewitness claik right off the bat.
They don't have to claim it to be it. John explicitly claims it (Jn. 1.14; 21.24).
That the Gospels were anonymous is part of the genre. Just as journalists don't put their own names in their news articles, neither did Gospel writers. But since their works were copied and spread, it is notable that every copy that has a name on it and every testimony from the ancients about who the writers are is both unanimous and consistent: Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn. There are no conflicting or competing theories, which is just about impossible to explain unless the authors were known and unanimously recognized. That's a huge evidence of confirmable authorship right off the bat.
> The gospels were written about 35+ years after Jesus death.
35 years is nothing. In our culture, that's back to Ronald Reagan, Madonna, and the murder of John Lennon. We can easily get at information and even eyewitnesses of those events.
> Mark was written, at the earliest, in 67 AD.
Estimates of Mark range from the 50s to the 70s, with most scholars in the 60s. I happen to think the evidence is considerable for a late 50s writing. What we can't say for certain is that it "was written, at the earliest, in 67 AD." There is a case to be made for it to have been earlier.
> Matthew was likely in the 70's.
There is no certainty to this. Evidence is stronger for Matthew to have been written in the early 60s, or perhaps mid-60s.
> Luke and John were 80+
Luke was probably also in the early 60s, since Acts has plenty of evidence that it was in the early 60s and Luke preceded it. John is possibly in the 80s.
> It is unlikely the disciples would have been literate, especially in Greek.
I disagree. 1st-c. Palestine was a multi-lingual region: Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. Since Matthew and John were both businessmen north of Galilee, a considerable slice of their business would come from Gentiles. Matthew would have had to interact with Romans, since he was a tax collector. John, as a fisherman, would also do business with quite a few Gentiles since Galilee was a region of mixed ethnicity and population. In any case, the use of amanuenses was common, so that's not a problem either.
> It is unlikely they knew how to write.
Knowing the Jewish culture of training every boy to read the Torah, all males were taught to read and write. The Septuagint was written in Greek, and the Torah in Hebrew, so it is likely that they knew how to read and write in multiple languages. I can provide for you a list of archaeological evidences that the population of Palestine was largely literate, if you would like to see it.
> Greek wasn't exactly a common language in the area, that would have been Aramaic.
Greek was common enough in the area. The sign Pilate wrote to go on the cross was in three languages for passersby in Jerusalem: Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. Greek was the common dialect of the empire.
There is no mention of an interpreter when Jesus spoke to Pilate. Since there's no reason to think that Pilate, a Roman, would speak Aramaic, Jesus most likely spoke to him in Greek or Latin. Since Jesus, being a common worker from Galilee, knew at least one of those languages, very plausibly his disciples did, too.
> One really big knock against Mark is that he has a remarkably poor understanding of the geology of the region for someone who supposedly lived there and traveled with Jesus.
Mark's alleged misunderstandings of geography are matters of interpretation and neither egregious or "remarkably poor." He mentions Tyre and Sidon in reverse order from what is normal, but who's to say this is not the route Jesus took? No one, actually. It's possible.
> Jesus in the Garden. He was supposedly alone, yet we get narration as if one of the disciples was right there next to him.
Every account has him with his three disciples (Mt. 26.36; Mk. 14.32; Lk. 22.39; Jn. 18.1). You're mistaken that Jesus was supposedly alone.
> Same for Jesus being tempted in the deserr by Satan.
Correct. There could not have been witnesses to this. What's so far fetch about thinking Jesus told his disciples about it?
> The birth narratives in Matthew and Luke cannot be harmonized, they flat contradict one another.
I have harmonized them. There is no contradiction. But you'd have to be specific for me to comment more specifically.
> they would have known Judas personally. This is again an event that differs pretty wildly between Matthew and Luke.
What event? I know of no problem between Matthew and Luke. You'll have to be more specific.
> We actually do have one source who spoke first hand to eyewitnesses: Paul
Luke also spoke with eyewitnesses (Lk. 1.1-4). John was an eyewitness, as previously noted. But because Matthew and Mark don't mention their sources doesn't mean they were not. Matthew, for instance, contains 5 lengthy speeches that would be known by an eyewitness. Mark's family were believers and were prominent in the church in Jerusalem. Mark may have been an eyewitness as well. In addition, external evidence tells us that Mark got much of his information from Peter, who was also an eyewitness. The Gospels are flowing with eyewitness accounts.
> He actually downplays his meetings with members of the 12 because it ended in disagreement
Correct, but this is neither a problem nor a defeater.
> Paul envisioned a less Jewish future for Christianity than did James and Peter.
Correct, but this is not a problem or defeater either.
> He doesn't speak much else about the 12 nor relay their accounts of Jesus.
Correct. His purposes in writing are different, and he was almost always writing to Gentile audiences.
> Paul also seems to be rather unaware of the existence of Gospels.
Correct. Paul's letters were written in the 50s. Mark was probably written in the late 50s, Matthew and Luke in the early 60s, and John later. So it's no surprise that Paul was unaware of the existence of the Gospels; they most likely didn't exist yet.
> and in fact copy Mark word-for -word in many places.
Actually, it is seldom word-for-word. The accounts are similar, but only occasionally word-for-word. That's not a problem. Even our modern news agencies at times use word-for-word what another news agency says. That doesn't discredit the truth of the report.
> Something like 70% of Matthew and Luke was taken from Mark.
This is actually untrue. I actually looked this up a few months ago, researching the same accusation. It must be fodder on the Internet, but it's untrue. Here's the results of my research:
"I couldn't get a reliable figure of how much of Matthew was from Mark off the Internet. I started reading through, comparing the two. Eighteen verses of Mark 1 (out of 45) are in Matthew. Twenty-four (of 28) verses of Mark 2 are in Matthew. Twenty-five (of 35) of Mark 3. The two accounts are quite different, though, I noticed when I read them in parallel. Though it was the same thought, it was rarely the same words. Sometimes I had a hard time figuring out if the verse from Mark was actually in Matthew, they were worded so differently. I had to make some judgment calls.
"I would say that though much of Mark is in Matthew (Internet sources said in the vicinity of 90%), it's untrue that a large percentage of Matthew is from Mark. If it's true that 600 verses of Mark are in Matthew (I have my doubts, but let's just go with that), that means 56% of Matthew is also in Mark, leaving 44% of Matthew unique from Mark. I would not consider that 'a very large percentage...taken word for word.' It's not even close to word for word, and 44% of Matthew is unique from Mark."
> This means that authority and legitimacy MATTERED to the Authors of the Gospel
Correct. It really did.
> Leaving out that they were members of the 12 would make no semse at all.
Neither Matthew nor John leave out that they were members of the 12. Mark and Luke never claim to be.
> When you put all this together, it is very unlikely that any of the gospels, let alone 2 or 3 of them, were written by Eyewitnesses.
Thank you for responding to me and giving your case, as I requested. You're one of the few ever to do this. You can tell from my responses that I disagree, but that's to be expected. It's my assessment that the evidence is far stronger supporting traditional authorship than against it. I think the evidence is considerable that the authors were Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn, and that two of them were eyewitnesses, Mark may have been a partial eyewitness in addition to getting his information from a bona fide eyewitness, Peter. Luke was a scholar, historian, and researcher, and got his information from eyewitnesses.
All four Gospels were acclaimed as authentic from the beginning by the early Church, and there is unanimous attestation of the authors as Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn—an absolutely incredible event if they were not truly by those authors.
I have deliberately tried to be brief, so each of my responses really deserves more complete discussion. I tried to keep it brief both to be considerate and because of the limitations of the forum. But we further discuss any of these pieces that you may wish.
Thank you for presenting your case. I will be pleased to respond.
> First point: The authors of the Gospels don't even claim to be eyewitnesses. They were written anonymously. That's a huge barrier to the eyewitness claik right off the bat.
They don't have to claim it to be it. John explicitly claims it (Jn. 1.14; 21.24).
That the Gospels were anonymous is part of the genre. Just as journalists don't put their own names in their news articles, neither did Gospel writers. But since their works were copied and spread, it is notable that every copy that has a name on it and every testimony from the ancients about who the writers are is both unanimous and consistent: Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn. There are no conflicting or competing theories, which is just about impossible to explain unless the authors were known and unanimously recognized. That's a huge evidence of confirmable authorship right off the bat.
> The gospels were written about 35+ years after Jesus death.
35 years is nothing. In our culture, that's back to Ronald Reagan, Madonna, and the murder of John Lennon. We can easily get at information and even eyewitnesses of those events.
> Mark was written, at the earliest, in 67 AD.
Estimates of Mark range from the 50s to the 70s, with most scholars in the 60s. I happen to think the evidence is considerable for a late 50s writing. What we can't say for certain is that it "was written, at the earliest, in 67 AD." There is a case to be made for it to have been earlier.
> Matthew was likely in the 70's.
There is no certainty to this. Evidence is stronger for Matthew to have been written in the early 60s, or perhaps mid-60s.
> Luke and John were 80+
Luke was probably also in the early 60s, since Acts has plenty of evidence that it was in the early 60s and Luke preceded it. John is possibly in the 80s.
> It is unlikely the disciples would have been literate, especially in Greek.
I disagree. 1st-c. Palestine was a multi-lingual region: Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. Since Matthew and John were both businessmen north of Galilee, a considerable slice of their business would come from Gentiles. Matthew would have had to interact with Romans, since he was a tax collector. John, as a fisherman, would also do business with quite a few Gentiles since Galilee was a region of mixed ethnicity and population. In any case, the use of amanuenses was common, so that's not a problem either.
> It is unlikely they knew how to write.
Knowing the Jewish culture of training every boy to read the Torah, all males were taught to read and write. The Septuagint was written in Greek, and the Torah in Hebrew, so it is likely that they knew how to read and write in multiple languages. I can provide for you a list of archaeological evidences that the population of Palestine was largely literate, if you would like to see it.
> Greek wasn't exactly a common language in the area, that would have been Aramaic.
Greek was common enough in the area. The sign Pilate wrote to go on the cross was in three languages for passersby in Jerusalem: Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. Greek was the common dialect of the empire.
There is no mention of an interpreter when Jesus spoke to Pilate. Since there's no reason to think that Pilate, a Roman, would speak Aramaic, Jesus most likely spoke to him in Greek or Latin. Since Jesus, being a common worker from Galilee, knew at least one of those languages, very plausibly his disciples did, too.
> One really big knock against Mark is that he has a remarkably poor understanding of the geology of the region for someone who supposedly lived there and traveled with Jesus.
Mark's alleged misunderstandings of geography are matters of interpretation and neither egregious or "remarkably poor." He mentions Tyre and Sidon in reverse order from what is normal, but who's to say this is not the route Jesus took? No one, actually. It's possible.
> Jesus in the Garden. He was supposedly alone, yet we get narration as if one of the disciples was right there next to him.
Every account has him with his three disciples (Mt. 26.36; Mk. 14.32; Lk. 22.39; Jn. 18.1). You're mistaken that Jesus was supposedly alone.
> Same for Jesus being tempted in the deserr by Satan.
Correct. There could not have been witnesses to this. What's so far fetch about thinking Jesus told his disciples about it?
> The birth narratives in Matthew and Luke cannot be harmonized, they flat contradict one another.
I have harmonized them. There is no contradiction. But you'd have to be specific for me to comment more specifically.
> they would have known Judas personally. This is again an event that differs pretty wildly between Matthew and Luke.
What event? I know of no problem between Matthew and Luke. You'll have to be more specific.
> We actually do have one source who spoke first hand to eyewitnesses: Paul
Luke also spoke with eyewitnesses (Lk. 1.1-4). John was an eyewitness, as previously noted. But because Matthew and Mark don't mention their sources doesn't mean they were not. Matthew, for instance, contains 5 lengthy speeches that would be known by an eyewitness. Mark's family were believers and were prominent in the church in Jerusalem. Mark may have been an eyewitness as well. In addition, external evidence tells us that Mark got much of his information from Peter, who was also an eyewitness. The Gospels are flowing with eyewitness accounts.
> He actually downplays his meetings with members of the 12 because it ended in disagreement
Correct, but this is neither a problem nor a defeater.
> Paul envisioned a less Jewish future for Christianity than did James and Peter.
Correct, but this is not a problem or defeater either.
> He doesn't speak much else about the 12 nor relay their accounts of Jesus.
Correct. His purposes in writing are different, and he was almost always writing to Gentile audiences.
> Paul also seems to be rather unaware of the existence of Gospels.
Correct. Paul's letters were written in the 50s. Mark was probably written in the late 50s, Matthew and Luke in the early 60s, and John later. So it's no surprise that Paul was unaware of the existence of the Gospels; they most likely didn't exist yet.
> and in fact copy Mark word-for -word in many places.
Actually, it is seldom word-for-word. The accounts are similar, but only occasionally word-for-word. That's not a problem. Even our modern news agencies at times use word-for-word what another news agency says. That doesn't discredit the truth of the report.
> Something like 70% of Matthew and Luke was taken from Mark.
This is actually untrue. I actually looked this up a few months ago, researching the same accusation. It must be fodder on the Internet, but it's untrue. Here's the results of my research:
"I couldn't get a reliable figure of how much of Matthew was from Mark off the Internet. I started reading through, comparing the two. Eighteen verses of Mark 1 (out of 45) are in Matthew. Twenty-four (of 28) verses of Mark 2 are in Matthew. Twenty-five (of 35) of Mark 3. The two accounts are quite different, though, I noticed when I read them in parallel. Though it was the same thought, it was rarely the same words. Sometimes I had a hard time figuring out if the verse from Mark was actually in Matthew, they were worded so differently. I had to make some judgment calls.
"I would say that though much of Mark is in Matthew (Internet sources said in the vicinity of 90%), it's untrue that a large percentage of Matthew is from Mark. If it's true that 600 verses of Mark are in Matthew (I have my doubts, but let's just go with that), that means 56% of Matthew is also in Mark, leaving 44% of Matthew unique from Mark. I would not consider that 'a very large percentage...taken word for word.' It's not even close to word for word, and 44% of Matthew is unique from Mark."
> This means that authority and legitimacy MATTERED to the Authors of the Gospel
Correct. It really did.
> Leaving out that they were members of the 12 would make no semse at all.
Neither Matthew nor John leave out that they were members of the 12. Mark and Luke never claim to be.
> When you put all this together, it is very unlikely that any of the gospels, let alone 2 or 3 of them, were written by Eyewitnesses.
Thank you for responding to me and giving your case, as I requested. You're one of the few ever to do this. You can tell from my responses that I disagree, but that's to be expected. It's my assessment that the evidence is far stronger supporting traditional authorship than against it. I think the evidence is considerable that the authors were Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn, and that two of them were eyewitnesses, Mark may have been a partial eyewitness in addition to getting his information from a bona fide eyewitness, Peter. Luke was a scholar, historian, and researcher, and got his information from eyewitnesses.
All four Gospels were acclaimed as authentic from the beginning by the early Church, and there is unanimous attestation of the authors as Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn—an absolutely incredible event if they were not truly by those authors.
I have deliberately tried to be brief, so each of my responses really deserves more complete discussion. I tried to keep it brief both to be considerate and because of the limitations of the forum. But we further discuss any of these pieces that you may wish.