John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Post a reply


This question is a means of preventing automated form submissions by spambots.
Smilies
:D :) ;) :( :o :shock: :? 8-) :lol: :x :P :oops: :cry: :evil: :twisted: :roll: :!: :?: :idea: :arrow: :| :mrgreen: :geek: :ugeek:
BBCode is ON
[img] is ON
[flash] is OFF
[url] is ON
Smilies are ON
Topic review
   

Expand view Topic review: John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Re: John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Post by jimwalton » Sun Jun 18, 2023 2:50 pm

I am continually doing research. You need to give evidence as to why those texts are unreliable. They are 98% identical to other texts, such as the Textus Receptus. It seems arbitrary to me to accept only those Greek texts recognized by Erasmus. Erasmus's work includes many mistakes and omissions (part of Revelation). He uses the Vulgate and many of the early manuscripts.

So you need to give me evidence as to why Erasmus's text is reliable and the others are not.

It would also help for you to give me evidence as to why you think John 5.4 is authentic.

Re: John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Post by Nut Planter » Sun Sep 20, 2020 10:22 am

You need to do some more research, if you think those texts are anything worth relying on.

Re: John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Post by jimwalton » Thu Sep 17, 2020 4:01 pm

This entire verse is missing in the oldest and best manuscripts like Codex Sinaiticus, Vaticanus, Codex Ephraemi, Codex Bezae. Washingtonianus, Monacensis, the Old Syriac, the Coptic versions, and the Latin Vulgate. It was undoubtedly added later. It was probably added by a scribe who was familiar with the local traditions. It doesn't mean it's false to what the people believed; it just wasn't anything that John himself wrote.

John 5:4 - authentic or no?

Post by Potato » Thu Sep 17, 2020 3:57 pm

John 5:4 appears in KJV, but is omitted in some newer translations.

KJV is my personal preference for reading the Word. I also enjoy comparing how scripture is worded differently in other translations. What significance does John 5:4 KJV hold? Why is it omitted in other translations such as in ESV and NIV?

John 5:4 KJV
For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.


This verse directly precedes Jesus healing the man who had an affliction for 38 years bringing the issue with the pharisees to a head. I'm curious what other views on this are? Thanks

Top


cron