by jimwalton » Tue Mar 28, 2017 9:17 am
The teaching that Jesus went to hell comes from Ephesians 4:9 "(What does 'he ascended' mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions?...)"
First, we never build a doctrine based on one verse. It's never enough material to be convinced about. So we can't say for certain Jesus went to hell.
Second, there are different ways to understand "descended to the lower, earthly regions." The traditional interpretation is that it means Jesus went to hell, but the text never says that, and there are other choices. Lots of Bible scholars think it refers to the incarnation. Chrysostom thought it referred to Jesus' death. So we can't say for certain Jesus went to hell.
But for the sake of argument or instruction, let's suppose he did. Does your argument still work? I don't think so.
Before Jesus' resurrection, the Bible seems to indicate that there was only one destination for the dead: Hades. Hades was divided into two sections: one section for the ungodly dead, in torment, and the other section for the godly dead, in comfort. This verse would indicate that Jesus descended to the godly section of Hades to take godly people to heaven, now that the way had been opened up by his resurrection. So we can't say for certain Jesus went to hell.
Third, hell is not necessarily the absence of God. Psalm 139.8 indicates that God is everywhere, including in hell. In hell people will be separated from a relationship with him, but God is omnipresent—he is everywhere. We know from the Bible that his presence everywhere is not constant. He can present in a more qualitative sense in the temple, for instance, than elsewhere, more present inside a believer than elsewhere, and certainly more present in the person of Jesus than anywhere else. So we are taught that God is present in hell, also, but in a different qualitative sense than he is elsewhere.
Last bumped by Anonymous on Tue Mar 28, 2017 9:17 am.