I just heard on a podcast a claim that i had never heard, and want to ask/debate the meaning with someone who is more knowledgeable than I am. I’ve taken 3 years of Greek, but I’m a little rusty, so my apologies in advance.
So let’s start- the standard translation of 2 Tim. 3:16 is “All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness,”
The Greek text is “πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἐλεγμόν, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ,”
If you can read Greek, you probably know that there is no verb for “to be”. So, translators insert “is” between “γραφὴ” and “θεόπνευστος”. I just heard a Christian claim that this is incorrect and that it should be translated as “All God-breathed Scripture is...” This changes the meaning from “all scripture is inspired” to “only quotes from God are for teaching, reproductive, etc.”.
Can anyone offer arguments for or against this statement?