by jimwalton » Fri Dec 27, 2019 3:56 pm
> Gal. 4.14
You have apparently missed the double "as" that separates the two praises: "as if I were an angel of God, as if I were Christ Jesus himself." There is nothing her that implies Christ was present with them in the form of an angel. That's a distortion of the text.
He is not implying that Jesus was/is an angel. He is giving several options. Option 1: they treated Paul as if he were an angel. Option 2: they treated Paul as if he were Jesus Christ himself. When Matthew 25.31-46 says "whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers of mind you did for me," it is not claiming that Jesus was sick and in prison (25.35-40). Nor is Paul claiming Jesus is an angel. Read 1 Samuel 29.9 "I know that you have been pleasing in my eyes as an angel of God." Achish is not saying David is an angel. Also look at 2 Sam. 14.17 & 20; 19.27. Read Zech. 12.8. Paul is not claiming that Jesus is an angel.
Look at the context. Paul had some kind of illness (Gal. 4.13). He appreciated that they didn't treat him with contempt or scorn (v. 14), but instead treated him like an angel, or as they would have treated Jesus Christ himself. Notice that the Greek does NOT say, "you received me as if I were an angel of God, Jesus Christ." What it says is "you received me as if I were an angel of God, as Christ Jesus." The word "as" appears twice, separating the two references.
The word "as" (ὡς) appears once before angel, and again before Christ. Therefore "Christ Jesus" is not an explanation of who the angel is, but a separate category of possibilities of how they were treating him.
> 1 Cor. 1.24
You can't just cherry pick texts that you want and ignore the rest of the NT. But even the ones you pick don't show what you are trying to sustain. Paul doesn't put the deity of Christ in every sentence when he speaks of Christ; that would get quite cumbersome. Instead, Paul makes the point that he is trying to make. Some places he's quite solid about the deity of Christ; here, that is not his point. What he is talking about here is that Christ is the power of God for salvation. With his death on the cross he conquered sin and death, and grants us the gift of new life. Though he also has the power of God in creation, in performing wonders and miracles, and in judging the world at the end of time. The focus here is on his power to save.
> he was made by God: 1 Cor. 1.30
This is wrong. The verse reads: "It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God—that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption." This verse says NOTHING about Jesus being made by God. It speaks instead of the incarnation, the cross, and the resurrection—Paul's point in this chapter.
> Christ is given the form of a god, but refuses to seize that opportunity to make himself equal to God, but submits to incarnation and death instead, for which obedience God grants him supreme authority (Phil. 2.5-11)
You're not being careful enough. The text doesn't say that Jesus was made in the form of God or that he was given the form of God. Instead, it says ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ: Who, being in very nature God..." Jesus was God in His very nature, and was always God in His very nature.
> 1 Cor. 15.24-28
Yes, Philippians 2.9-11 says God will hand the kingdom over the Jesus; 1 Cor. 15.24 says Jesus will hand the kingdom over to God. It's how the Trinity works. They exalt each other. This verse (15.24), however, is probably talking about the resurrection (which the whole chapter has been about). His death on the cross and resurrection destroyed all dominion, authority, and power, and in his ascension he handed over his kingdom to the Father. At the same time, Philippians 2.9-11 tells us that God will exalt Jesus above every name, and, of course, Jesus will receive that to the glory of God the Father.
> Thus in our earliest sources Jesus was always distinguished as a different entity from God
This is just blatantly wrong.
> Even in Colossians he is the image of God, not God himself
The image (εἰκὼν) is more than likeness. Full deity is ascribed to jesus by this term. The Greek word *omoioma* expresses mere resemblance. If Paul had used that here, you could claim Jesus was not God himself. But the term Paul used is εἰκὼν: He is the very nature and essence of God.
> ‘the firstborn of all creation’ (and thus a created being)
Wrong again. The "firstborn of all creation" means he preceded creation. It doesn't mean he was the first created being or imply that he had some kind of origin in time. "Firstborn" points to eternal preexistence." Christ could not have been the first of created beings, because that very idea is contradicted by the very next verse (Col. 1.16).
> Romans 1.4: Jesus is only appointed the ‘Son of God’.
The problem is your reductionistic term, "only." Jesus was the Son of God in his pre-incarnate state (2 Cor. 8.9; Phil. 2.6), and still so after his incarnation (Rom. 1.3). IT was his resurrection of the dead that definitely marked Jesus off as God's Son, giving historical evidence of His claims. The resurrection confirmed Him to be what he was all along.
> This was precisely how the phrase ‘Son of God’ and the concepts of divine ‘incarnation’ and ‘indwelling’ were then understood by the Jews.
Jewish theology saw "Son of God" in different ways. In one sense, it was the Messiah of Ps. 2.7. Paul uses this title "Son of God" 10 times in Romans as (1) a recognition of Jesus's humanity, (2) a recognition of Jesus's deity and as Messiah, (3) as a recognition fo Jesus's sovereign Lordship as God.
Last bumped by Anonymous on Fri Dec 27, 2019 3:56 pm.