by jimwalton » Wed Nov 28, 2012 8:48 pm
Absolutely yes. Here's the evidence.
John 1.1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Verse 14 tells us the Word was made flesh, and the rest of chapter 1 shows us that this was Jesus.
In John 10:30, Jesus claims to be one and the same with the Father God. The Jews who were there understood clearly what he was saying, and picked up stones to stone him for blasphemy (see v. 33).
The book of Hebrews:
chapters 1 & 2 claim that Jesus was not just an angel, but was the "exact representation" of God (v. 3)
chapter 3 claims he was greater than the great prophet Moses. He was no mere prophet, but the Son of God himself.
chapters 5-8 claim he was not like a priest, but far superior
Colossians 1.15 says he is "the image of the invisible God." He is the very stamp of God the Father. The word "image" indicates his deity.
Phil. 2.6: Jesus and God shared the same nature.
There's more. Every time Jesus used the term, "I AM," (...the light of the world...the bread of life...the resurrection and the life...) He was invoking the name of God from Exodus ("I am who I am") and applying it to himself.
That's probably enough to answer your question.
Last bumped by Anonymous on Wed Nov 28, 2012 8:48 pm.