by jimwalton » Sun Jan 29, 2017 9:02 pm
The message of a spiritual resurrection, or even of visions, would not have been radical or objectionable. The Jews, Greeks and Romans all believed in such things. In addition, some Jewish sects also believed in a physical resurrection, but long in the future after death and then an interim period of death as a state (a future hope). What was stunning (and totally unacceptable to many hearers) about the resurrection narrative is that they were claiming something not only unheard of, but impossible: A physical resurrection from the dead back to this life. This is what the contemporaries of the apostles found to be unbelievable. You are right that the resurrection stories in the NT are clear, but somehow you have breezed right past them in blindness. The resurrection of Jesus was told as a counter-cultural motif: instant physical resurrection. The apostles surely believed in a future hope, but that was not this story. The message of the Gospel was clearly a "resurrection" movement. If it was merely a spiritual or visionary resurrection, a body and the empty tomb would be irrelevant.
If we start with Paul, with 1 & 2 Thessalonians being some of his earliest work (AD 49-50), we go first to 1 This. 1.10: "and to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead—Jesus..." His present location in heaven and his future return were commonplace conversations. But his description of how this future arrives is in 4.13-5:11. What does Paul mean by "resurrection"? In the passage he clearly states those who have already died will, at some future date, be raised from the dead (4.14). We don't need Jesus for that; they all believed that anyway. But then Paul adds something completely different: those who are still alive will see instant resurrection, based on the evidence of the resurrection of Jesus. (*Anastesontai* in 4.16 has never meant anything other than bodily resurrection in any Greek reference.) The close parallel of 4.16-17 and 1 Cor. 15.51-52 speak of an instant physical change from corruptible flesh to incorruptible flesh—of the same type as Jesus' body.
In Galatians, Paul starts off by mentioning Jesus' resurrection (1.1). His whole case in Galatians is incomprehensible without a physical resurrection. God had initiated a plan "to rescue us from the present evil age" (1.4). Paul is functioning in current Judaistic understandings, except he claims that something different than expected had happened because "the age to come" had broken into "the present age"—Jesus' resurrection. This is impossible to understand if Jesus' resurrection was merely spiritual or visionary. The death and resurrection of Jesus are the inauguration of this promised new age. The Jews always believed in restoration after exile, but what Paul sees supersedes that in that it includes Jews and Gentiles. This is not Jewish theology, but a new (and unexpected) addition.
In Philippians, he speaks again of a transformed body (Phil. 3.20-21, unnecessary if it is only a spiritual resurrection).
Romans, as I mentioned before, drips with resurrection theology—bodily, physical resurrection. Starting in Rom. 1.4, his claim cannot possibly mean (as it normally would in its second-temple context) that Jesus was exalted spiritually to a place of honor, like the martyrs, awaiting resurrection, or that his soul was in the hands of God. No. Paul's point is that the resurrection has declared Jesus of Nazareth, descended from David, to be the true Messiah, the "Son of God." His point only makes sense—only has political ramifications and life significance—if a physical resurrection has marked Jesus out as the true world ruler, the one of whom Caesar is a mere parody.
We could go on for hours tracing through Paul's theology of physical resurrection. I haven't even touched on the Corinthians, as full of the necessity of physical resurrection as Romans and the rest of Paul's writings.
What about the Gospels? Same story. The Gospel of Mark is infused with resurrection (by my count, no fewer than 30). Baptism (1.9) was a symbol of resurrection; the man of 2.1-12 was "raised up" (same word as resurrection); the man of 3.1-6 "raised up" his hand to "save life"; Jairus's daughter was physically raised from the dead (5.42), and on and on.
This is an almost endless inventory. Matthew and Luke speak of a great eschatological reversal, unexpected in Jewish theology. The only way to understand their teachings is in the context of a physical, bodily resurrection. Mere spiritualization renders all of it moot. Matthew 10.28-31 and its parallel in Luke 12.4-7 only make sense with physical resurrection as the reference point. There only reason to tell people not to be afraid of those who kill the body is if there is a life beyond bodily death. Jesus confirms such an understanding in Matt. 11.5. As I said, it's almost endless.
As far as Paul in Acts 9, the text doesn't say Jesus appeared *as a brilliant light*. It says a light flashed around him. 1 Corinthians 15.8 says he actually saw Jesus. The light was something different.
> Moreover, what would it mean to say that the risen Jesus is a physical/bodily reality? That he continues to be a molecular, protoplasmic, corpuscular being existing somewhere? Does that make any sense? How can the risen and living Jesus be all around us and with us, present everywhere, if he is bodily and physical?
Absolutely that's what it means, and that's what was so radical, then and now. 1 Corinthians 15.12-54 insist on exactly that understanding. How can he be all around us and with us, present everywhere, if he is bodily and physical? Because his presence is not confined to his body, as ours is. He is present with us in the Holy Spirit, a different Person of the Trinity (In Jn. 14.16, he sends the Spirit; in v. 18, he says he himself will come. He and the Spirit are different persons, but one essence, as are he and the Father).