by jimwalton » Thu Nov 01, 2018 12:27 pm
> all of that relies on the religious texts to have accurately reported the events - and we don't have good reason to presume that.
We actually do have good reason to presume that. First of all, it is apparent from the study of the Gospels that their intent was to communicate history, not legend or mythology. There is not a single hint in any of their writings that their intent was not to accurately report the events.
Secondly, their bias is not a disqualifier because their bias would have come from evidence. Bias is not always a negative trait. There are times when bias, while looking at an event or person from a limited perspective, can also shine light on an issue that would otherwise be unknown. We get bias, but not necessarily distortion, when we hear women report about sexual predators and abuse (#MeToo). They are looking at the event from a very limited angle, and even bias, but we appreciate their reports. Even though what they tell is from their leaning, we can still be hearing an objective statement. The same might be true to hear a Jewish victim’s report on the Holocaust, or any African American writing about slavery before the Civil War. Their bias is actually an advantage to show us what really happened. So a person can be biased and still act and write impartially and objectively. The "bias" of the Gospel writers was clearly because they had experienced something life-changing, not because they were trying to distort and deceive.
The Bible writers, particularly the authors of the Gospels, often get accused by modern detractors of writing with a bias that allows us to discredit their stories and interpretations. The question at hand, then, would be to determine if their experience and consequent leaning kidnapped their objectivity or instead gave them a reporting advantage. Since their aim was not to discredit anything or anyone, and their agenda was to report accurate history, and they had little or nothing to gain from taking the stance they did, it’s more plausible to consider their bias as useful rather than detrimental. Too many elements of the gospels don’t come across as having been invented for the sake of bias. Their objectives were noble (to lead people to life and salvation), not deceitful (to gain fortune and fame, power, or to suppress someone else).
An objective examination of the Gospels assures us that their bias is of the advantageous sort. Who else can accurately report about the resurrection but the very people who were eyewitnesses? We would expect nothing less than a report of sheer amazement, which is just what we have. If you will only accept a report from someone who saw the risen Jesus but wasn't convinced, well, that's nonsense. Instead, we have the reports of those who saw him, were convinced, and wrote about it. There is no reason to doubt that they have accurately reported the events. If you still think so, you need to provide your case for their deceit.
> Secondly, even if we did agree that this Jesus person "died" and was seen alive a few days later, we have a number of contemporary texts which attest to the fact that occasionally people were mistakenly considered to have died. Even today this sort of mistake happens on occasion - although less frequently than former owing to our greater understanding of medicine.
This is true, and always possible, but when we consider the scene, it's not plausible. First of all, it doesn't take into account the viciousness of flogging and crucifixion. Flogging was so brutal that often people died from it and never got to the cross. With hooks on the leather, along with metal balls and pieces of glass, the torso was often torn open so far the entrails were exposed. Muscle was ripped off the body down to the bones. It was horrific. As I a said, it was the door to death all by itself. But then follow that with crucifixion. Crucifixion was death by suffocation. With the weight of the body on the arms, the chest cavity collapsed and cramped, making breathing difficult or impossible. Usually uncontrollably as a reflex the body would act to survive, and the victim would push up on the feet and use his hands to support his weight (excruciating pain with nails through them), enough to take a gasping breath and collapse back down (more excruciating pain, and now can't breathe again). Secondly, the soldiers were professional executioners. It was their job to warrant the victim's death. To think that they were derelict in their duties is implausible. There were ways to tell is someone was dead: ashen skin devoid of blood flow (livor mortis), rigor mortis, and loss of temperature (algor mortis). These people were around death a whole lot more than we are. The ashen skin and cool temp happens quickly. It was their job to confirm the criminal's death. They plunged a spear into his chest cavity, releasing blood and clear fluid (subsequent to the flogging and crucifixion), and confirmed his was dead, so much so that they didn't break the legs. (Breaking the legs prohibited the victim from rising up to catch a breath, and therefore would suffocate to death very quickly.) Third, we would have to assume that those who prepared the body never once suspected that the guy was still breathing. Put all of these scenarios together, and it's not at all reasonable to assume that he hadn't really died, but they were mistaken.
But then you have to also assume that 36 hours later he was feeling better enough to rouse, to worm his way of his grave wrappings, to move a stone from the inside that weighed several tons. And then you have to assume he presented himself not as one who barely escaped death, but as the victorious one who had risen.
All of those defies credibility.
> it is much more likely than a miraculous model of resurrection.
If you consider Jesus a man, of course. If Jesus is God as he claimed to be, then it is not more likely. We know the tomb was empty. A literal and historical resurrection is the most reasonable conclusion to explain why many staunch first-century Jews would abandon the Sabbath, the sacrifices, and the Law of Moses and claim the reality of a physical resurrection in the city in which it recently occurred. The Jews had no notion expectation of bodily resurrection in their theology. The Jews were fanatically attached to their Sabbath. Since the early church was almost exclusively Jewish, it must have required an event of deep and startling significance to make them switch. The institution of Christian worship on Sunday traces back to the place and date of the resurrection. The resurrection accounts for this transition. If the story were false, the movement would have been quickly and easily stamped out.
N.T. Wright says, “Neither the empty tomb by itself…nor the appearances by themselves could have generated the early Christian belief. The empty tomb alone would be a puzzle and a tragedy. Sightings of an apparently alive Jesus, by themselves, would have been classified as visions or hallucinations, which were well enough known in the ancient world. However, an empty tomb and appearances of a living Jesus, taken together, would have presented a powerful reason for the emergence of the belief."
It is indisputable that Jesus's disciples taught that he was raised from the dead and had appeared to individuals and groups. It is also indisputable that Jesus's disciples intended for us to interpret the resurrection as an actual event.
In other words, the tomb was verifiably empty, and the appearances of Jesus are plausible on the basis of indisputable evidence of the birth and growth of Christianity. You really have to wonder if a miraculous model of resurrection is really so much less likely than some kind of deceit, that is, unless you have a priori made a decision that it's not possible and therefore are closed to consider the evidence with some kind of objectivity.