> Matthew 28.19-20
The discussion at hand is Trinitarian claims, not the definition of baptism (though I disagree with what you are saying about that, also. But that's another discussion). your claim was that the "Trinity doesn't exist in Gospels." Matthew 28.19 is an explicit and early reference to the Trinity. Matthew's singular use of the term "name" (τὸ ὄνομα) indicates that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit share a singular identity.
> Matthew 28:18, Jesus says he is the messenger, and has the authority over who woud enter into Heaven, by what is said in laws.
Yes, Jesus is always explicit about his being sent by the Father (Mt. 10.40; 15.24; Jn. 4.34; 5.24, and many others).
> And with baptising he advises apostles to call men to God, to the message, and to person who is in charge.
Baptism is not the discussion here. The deity of Christ is, and that the Trinity exists in the Gospels. Even the Qur'an identifies Jesus as holy, like Allah (Surah 3.45-46). In Surah 4.171, Isa is identified as the Word of Allah and as the Spirit of Allah, a status not shared by any other prophet in the Qur'an (Sura 21.91). The Word and the Spirit of Allah are part of Allah himself. Isa has power over death (3.49), a power not given to another other prophet. And Isa himself is able to lead us to heaven (3.50-55). Even Muhammad claimed he did not have that ability (46.9). Muhammad didn't know where he would go after death, but Isa traveled the path from Allah to Earth and returned to Allah in heaven, and he alone is qualified to show the way.
> John 10.30 talks about togetherness, Jesus talks about Almighty's rule.
Jesus is asked if he is the Messiah (10.24). He affirms that he is (10.25). His works confirm his words (Jn. 5.36). He is the one who gives eternal life, as the Qur'an even affirms (Surah 3.50-55, as previously mentioned; Surah 3.50 instructs Muslims to obey Isa). In John 10.30, Jesus is not making a statement about togetherness, but about a unity of essence. He and God the Father are one in essence and nature. The Jews who heard him understood very well what he was claiming (Jn. 10.31, 33), and Jesus never backs away from that to correct them or to say they misunderstood.
And nowhere in this section is there any hint of the Almighty's rule. Nowhere.
> John 1:1 is open to pulling around.
It is not. The Greek is clear. Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Ἐν ἀρχῇ: "In the beginning," an evident allusion to Genesis 1.1, a statement of preexistence and basic causality. "At the root of the universe." There was never a time when the Word was not. There never was a thing that did not depend on him for its existence (v. 3). The first predicate of the Word is eternity.
ἦν ὁ λόγος: "Was the Word." Imperfect, the tense of continuing action in past time. It conveys no idea of origin of the Word, but rather of continuous existence.
καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν: "And the Word was with God." Another imperfect. *Pros* (πρὸς) with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other, living in union and communion. *Pros* (πρὸς) also connotes personality. The Word is not an impersonal principle or a metaphor, but is to be regarded as a living, intelligent, active personality.
καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. "And the Word was God." God is the predicate (and not the subject of the preposition); The Word is the subject. Imperfect tense again. He inherently shares the same nature as God. As Marvin Vincent writes, "Notice that theos is without the article which could not have been omitted if he had meant to designate the word as God; because, in that event, theos would have been ambiguous; perhaps a god. Moreover, if he had said God was the Word, he would have contradicted his previous statement by which he had substantially distinguished God from the word, and logos would, further, have signified only an attribute of God. The predicate is emphatically placed in the proposition before the subject, because of the progress of the thought; this being the third and highest statement respecting the Word—the climax of the two preceding propositions. The Word God, used attributively, maintains the personal distinction between God and the Word, but makes the unity of essence and nature to follow the distinction of person, and ascribes to the Word all the attributes of the divine essence."
We learn that the Word was eternally preexistent, personal, and divine.
> John 14:15-18
Of course Jesus is confirming the Torah, but he explicitly identifies himself as one and the same with the Spirit (v. 18). He says the Spirit will come to you, and he says "I will come to you." The Spirit's presence inside and individual is identical to Jesus's presence inside an individual.
> John 4:15
This was a mangled typo on my part. My apologies. I meant to write John 1.14; 5.37-39.
> Yes, but we know that Jewish scholars, when Jesus entered into Jerusalem had admitted him into the Temple. He was able to exchange with them, those scholars were the leaders of religion and having no less knowledge than any religious leader we know now. And Jesus talked constantly about revelation with allegories. We know he didn't get a formal education from those scholars as Gabriel helped him since birth.
First of all, you're admitting that your statement (" there is a Hebrew version of the Gospels that predates the Greek versions") is false. Secondly, your paragraph here has nothing to do with that subject. What's the point you're making?
If your point is that Jesus conversed with the men in Hebrew, that is questionable. Aramaic was the most common language of the day in 1st-c. Palestine. Hebrew was definitely spoken, but it's difficult to determine by whom and how much. The evidence tells us that Hebrew was *written,* but it's hard to know how much it was *spoken*. It's likely that Jesus spoke Hebrew as a second language (as He also would probably have spoken Greek), but it's impossible to know if he conversed with the scholars in Hebrew or the more common Aramaic.
> We know he didn't get a formal education from those scholars as Gabriel helped him since birth.
This is not a claim the Bible makes. I don't even think it's in the Qur'an. From where did this idea come? And what's your point?
> God gave the same common core of religion since first man.
This is true, but the many religions on the planet show how widely and harshly God's revelation has been distorted. i think there's good evidence that Christianity is the true religion.
> He sent Jesus -pbuh as messiah and we have the last book.
God did send Jesus as Messiah, and the New Testament is the last book and the record of Jesus's revelation to the world. Hebrews 1.2 mentions Isa as God's final revelation humanity, and Revelation 22.18 adds that a person will be accursed for adding to what the New Testament has said (also for taking anything away from the NT).
>
https://depts.drew.edu/jhc/eisenman.htmlYour link pertains to several scholars' opinions of Paul as a Herodian (a view that is not widely held), but is meaningless as support of your contention that "God gave the same common core of religion since the first man." The author even admits, "Though these matters are hardly capable of proof, and we have, in fact, proved nothing..."