> Why would Paul write down a verse as if it were the words of God all because of some one-off event?
There are a lot of teachings in the Bible that are "one-off events."
- Jesus told the rich ruler, "Go and sell everything you have and give it to the poor." This was not a requirement for anyone else but this guy.
- Jesus told a man, "Let the dead bury the dead. I want you to follow me." This is not a teaching that Christians should eschew funerals or leave the deceased to rot.
- Paul gave the Corinthians "milk" (teaching for immature believers) (1 Cor. 3.2). That doesn't mean Paul gave that to everyone.
- The situation of 1 Corinthians 5 is specifically a situation of the Corinthian church. It has some general application, but I'll guarantee you it's not a situation in my church.
- The situation of 1 Corinthians 7 is specifically a situation of the Corinthian church. It's hard for us to even know the exact question to which Paul is responding (1 Cor. 7.1 is too general).
- The situation of 1 Corinthians 8 is specifically a situation of the Corinthian church. In specific it has nothing to do with us now, though there are a few principles in there that we can use (8.13).
- The situation of 1 Cor. 10.14-22 is specifically a situation of the Corinthian church. In specific it has nothing to do with us now, though there are a few principles in there that we can use (10.21).
And so it goes. Paul's not rationalizing anything. A lot of stuff in Corinthians is specifically addressing their particular issues that only pertain to us by a few foundational principles. In the 1 Corinthians 14 text at issue, the principle is not to be disruptive to worship. It's not misogynistic.
> 1 Tim 2
First of all, and mainly, the context is everything. You can't just jerk this verse out into the air with smug satisfaction.
Secondly, we know that the Bible allows women to have authority over men (like Deborah in Judges 4). The Bible offers an impressive array of examples of women exercising social or political authority without raising any questions to the propriety of it (Dan. 5.10-12; Neh. 2.6; the Queen of Sheba, Vashti, Candace, Athaliah, and Esther). So we know this teaching was a local thing, not a universal thing.
Third, we know that in 1 Corinthians 11.5 the women were allowed to speak, by the mandate of Paul, so we know this teaching in 1 Timothy is a local problem and a local mandate, not a universal one.
Some background would also help. The Ephesians (where Timothy was) were overrun by Gnostic-influenced women taking a particular twist on Genesis 2 to claim superiority, ignoring legitimate teaching and morality. He is addressing the women who refuse to be taught. The church was being overrun by false teachers, and the women were being drawn in and then rising up as the big cheeses with false teaching. It was affecting the church in the whole region, and Paul needed to put a stop to it.
Contextually, the reference is to public assemblies. He is concerned for proper teaching. These women need to listen when the truth is being taught and learn from it (v. 11).
The word in question ("to have authority over") is αὐθεντεῖν. This is the only time it appears in the Bible, and its occurrence in the ancient world is rare (only 7 times, I think). It seems to mostly carry the idea of tyrannical domineering.
And so, once again, the teaching is about disruption and false teaching, not misogynistic.
> For Adam was formed first, then Eve. And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. But women will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety."
Elsewhere Paul placed the blame of humanity's sinfulness on Adam (Rom. 5.12, 15), yet we don't accuse him of being androgynistic. Since the context is about deceit, Eve here becomes the focal point and the example du jour. Part of Paul's point is that Eve made her decision without consulting Adam (as far as we know, but it's Paul's point, in any case); in like manner, these women should work like a team, a family, and not in isolation. The women listened to false teachers and were deceived without checking the facts with others.
> It sounds like Paul is trying to rationalize the subjugation of women by pinning the downfall of humanity on them.
So this is just an out-there conclusion, not at all what the text is teaching. (1) He is not teaching the subjugation of women, but rather the suppression of false teaching; (2) he is not pinning the downfall of humanity on them (since he pinned it on Adam in Rom. 5.12), but using the situation of deceit to illustrate his point; (3) Paul isn't rationalizing anything. Paul mines Genesis for an illustration to address the situation in Ephesus. He accurately reflects the textual data that Adam was formed first and Eve was the target of the deception. No claims are made about how humanity was formed, about genetic relationships, or the mechanisms or timing of material origins. Like all of the previous New Testament passages, Adam and Eve are used as archetypes (not metaphors or allegories, mind you) to make a point about all of humanity, here to provide an illustration of how a deceived woman can lead others into error. That's what going on here.