by jimwalton » Tue Oct 27, 2020 1:53 pm
> The Bible was not written to be read literally.
The Bible is a rich literary collection containing music, poetry, metaphor, allegory, archetypes, parable, hyperbole, metonymy, irony, simile, and many other literary forms, as well as genres such as prayer, prophecy, blessing, covenant language, legal language, etc. "Literally" quickly becomes a word with very little meaning or helpfulness. If a poet says the trees of the field will clap their hands and the mountains will jump for joy, is that literal? Of course not, it's poetry. If a man prays, "God, kill all those people", we may all understand that his prayer is inappropriate, and is not blessed by God, but is it literal? Well, how does that word even apply? And how does it apply to archetype, allegory, parable, and all the others? It's a word that should be dropped from the discussion because it doesn't take us anywhere except to the Land of Misunderstanding.
It's better to think that the Bible should be taken the way the author intended it to be taken. If he was using hyperbole, we're to take it that way. So also allegorically, historically, parabolic, poetic, etc. Our quest is to understand the intent of the author. In that case we'll take the Bible seriously, but "literally" doesn't take us anywhere.
> First of all the Bible was never written period. These texts were compiled by church councils, we all know that.
This is false. The Septuagint shows us that the Old Testament was in complete form by 200 BC. The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls confirms the written text of the OT. The DSS contain at least some fragment of every book (and in some cases a complete book) except Esther.
We have New Testament manuscripts from as early as AD 125, and many fragments from before the time of the church councils. As you admit that the church councils were compilers rather than writers, you admit that the written texts existed. In reality, the church councils were gatekeepers, not compilers. There are many evidences (Hermas, Papias, Pantaenus, Tatian, Irenaeus, the Muratorian Fragment, Tertullian, et al.) of biblical documents long before the church councils.
> So there is no reason to take a single text like Paul’s letter to Timothy and say the Bible as we know it, wasn’t what Paul meant by “scripture”.
So this is incorrect also. Paul is referring to the Old Testament, which was in place and recognized as authoritative.
> I would argue the book of Job has nothing to do with the majority of the Bible, but was recognized as a “scripture”.
The book of Job definitely has something to do with the rest of the Bible as it weighs God's character and policies.
> You could throw in proverbs in that category of scripture that wasn’t part of the Torah or Jewish prophets.
It was recognized as part of Scripture in the category of Jewish wisdom literature, along with Psalms, Job, Ecclesiastes, and Song of Songs.
> The Bible never self declares as a literal document.
I don't even know what this means or what you mean by it. Do you mean that for the Bible to be authoritative it has to say, "This writing is authoritative"? Because it HAS done that (Dt. 4.2; 2 Tim. 3.16, etc.).
> The majority of it only reads as allegory.
This is also incorrect. See above. Much of the Bible is historical. Much is theological. Some is allegorical, some parabolic, some metaphorical, some simile, some ...
> And I posit the argument that when it does read like or coincide with “facts” that the mythological understanding is what matters.
The Bible diverges quite distinctly from mythography and shares little to nothing in common with it. Obviously we need to talk more, so let's discuss this further.