by jimwalton » Wed Oct 31, 2018 2:02 pm
Thanks for the dialogue. Glad to continue it.
> the story interpreted so that each word refers to what it means in its most basic sense.
We are not after letting each word refer to what it means in its most basic sense. We are after what the author intended by it, which we can gain by linguistic and cultural studies. It's not legitimate to deal with the English text as if the most basic meaning of our English words communicates the full import or even the intended gist of the Hebrew term. For a full meaning of difficult, ancient texts we need to go back as far as we can to the original, both linguistically (comparative linguistics) and cultural studies (anthropology, sociology, mythology, theology, etc.).
> This is the fundamentalist/young earth creationist interpretation, and the one that is taught to children (source: my memory from primary school).
This is only the most basic sense because you were taught a Western Enlightenment approach to the text. As I have written, taking the text as functional seems even a more "literal" approach to it that the YEC Sunday School version.
> Then there are deeper readings, those that appreciate poetic and symbolic elements.
The deeper readings are not the poetic and symbolic ones. For instance, I have told you that the text is about functional creation, not material creation. Let me add to that, and it has nothing to do with poetry or symbolism.
In the ancient world, something was considered "created" (it came into existence) when it was separated out, given a function, and given a name. In the Ritual of Amun, the first god arises on his own from the primeval waters, separates himself from them, and then separates himself into millions to function as the gods.
Prior to creation, the Egyptian texts talk about the "non-existent." In their thinking their "nonexistent" realm continues to be present in the sea, in the dark night, and even in the desert—places not without physical (material) existence but without role or function. In the Egyptian pre-creation state of nonexistence there are two elements: primeval waters and total darkness.
Mesopotamian records show that when one named something (and the name designated the thing's function or role), then it was considered to exist. In the Babylonian Creation account, bringing the cosmos into existence begins "when on high no name was given in heaven, nor below was the netherworld called by name ... When no gods at all had been brought forth, none called by names, no destinies ordained, then were the gods formed." In the earlier Gilgamesh, Enkidu and the Netherworld, the first couple of lines read: "After heaven had been moved away from earth, after earth had been separated from heaven, after the name of man had been fixed," then the heavens and the Earth were considered to exist.
We can see these same cultural ideas in Genesis, and they have nothing to do with poetry or symbolism. Something was considered to exist when it had been separated out, given a name, and ordained with a role and function. As you read Genesis 1, now, you can see it more in its cultural context. The Genesis account is more about who controlled functions (a very common ancient Near Eastern worldview) than about who gave something its physical form. In the ancient world something was created when it was given a function.
You'll notice that Genesis 1.2 present a world without separation and without function. Material is present, but it's disordered and nonorder, formless and void. The material that is there is without order and proper functionality.
> Your interpretation belongs to the former category. In fact, you admit so much:
[On the word "nudity":] Yes. It's figurative.
You know, because I admitted that one piece of the writing was figurative doesn't mean you can toss the whole narrative into that category. It's inaccurate. What I said was that the story is literally about functional creation, not material creation, literally (if we can use that word). It's not poetic, allegorical, or metaphorical. But of course, yes, there is one figure of speech in there (maybe even more, but that doesn't make the text metaphorical or poetic).
> Why would one put physical things as the object of a verb that could only refer to abstract things? Also, why would the early translators have used "to create" (the word used for material creation) instead of a more appropriate term?
"Create" was the appropriate term. It's just that the ancients thought differently about creation than we do. If you're a language nerd, let's go deeper.
בָּרָא (bara’) means "create" all right. It refers to some unique formative act, but does not rule out any process, immediate or developmental. An examination of the Old Testament:
Verses with bara’ in it:
Gn. 1.1, 21, 27, 27, 27
Gn. 2.3, 4
Gn. 5.1, 2 – people, male and female
Gn. 6.7
Dt. 4.32
Ps. 51.10 – create in me a clean heart
Ps. 89.12 – north and south
Ps. 102.18 – created a people
Ps. 104.30 –
Ps. 148.5 –
Isa. 4.5 – a canopy of smoke and fire
Isa. 40.26 –
Isa. 41.20 –
Isa. 42.5 –
Isa. 43.1, 7 –
Isa. 45.7, 8, 12, 18 –
Isa. 54.16 –
Isa. 57.19 – the fruit of lips that praise his name
Isa. 65.17, 18 – the idea of Jerusalem
Jer. 31.22 – created a new thing
Amos 4.13 –
Mal. 2.10 –
The objects "created" are unusual things, in the categories of abstractions rather than material products. It has nothing to do with manufacture (the way we modern Westerners think of "create"), and not with things. When we speak of creating a piece of art, we are not suggesting the manufacture of paints and canvas, but rather of what we DO with them. Even more abstractly, one can create a situation (e.g., havoc), or a condition (an atmosphere of hostility, for instance). The verb bara' is never joined with an accusative of material. This is all in perfect keeping with their cultural context and linguistic worldview. As we examine bara' we can see that the objects of the verb point consistently toward its connection to functional properties than to material existence.
> Why would one put physical things as the object of a verb that could only refer to abstract things?
Gn. 1.1: "The heavens and the earth" are often used in Scripture to speak of the totality of all things. An abstraction of completeness.
On Day 1, there is no word for "create" or "make." Only an abstract concept of "let there be..."
On Day 2 the word for "made" (v. 7) is from the Hebrew root 'asa, as term that means "do." It is used 1560 times in the OT to designate the accomplishment of a task, and 670 times of making either a material object (like an idol) or an abstraction (like an offering). Notice that most of what is happening on Day 2 is that God is creating a separation (abstract).
On Day 3 nothing is made. There is a separation and a naming.
On Day 4 we read "let there be" and then a function: to mark days and seasons. There is also separation. Verse 16 again uses the term 'asa. Job 9.9's use of the word is the arrangement of the stars into constellations (abstract) rather than manufacture. Isa. 41.17-20's use of the term is regarding function. So also Isa. 45.7.
And so it goes. I won't continue because I hope you get the thrust of the text.
> Also, why would the early translators have used "to create" (the word used for material creation) instead of a more appropriate term?
"Create" just may be the most appropriate term. Other alternatives may give the wrong impression. Translation work is not always smooth and easy.