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The Holiness Code, Sacred people and sacred space

Leviticus 27 and a perceived contradiction

Postby Regnis Numis » Wed Jul 11, 2018 4:01 pm

Throughout Leviticus 27, owners are allowed to redeem their animals, houses, and family land by adding a fifth to their value, yet Leviticus 27:28 states nothing a person owns and devotes to God may be sold or redeemed. Doesn't this pose a significant contradiction?
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Re: Leviticus 27 and a perceived contradiction

Postby jimwalton » Wed Jul 11, 2018 4:18 pm

There are different ways to dedicate things to the Lord's use, and the chapter is going about explaining how to redeem various things, and the different kinds of dedications. Vv. 2-13 pertain to vows, and within that vv. 2-8 to the dedication of persons. 3-7 pertains to money. 9-13 is about animals. 14-25 is about houses or lands. V. 21 is about priest property. 28-29 are about herem. 31-33 about the tithe. So these are different categories and different treatments of "dedicated things" in different situations.
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Re: Leviticus 27 and a perceived contradiction

Postby Regnis Numis » Tue Jul 17, 2018 2:49 pm

> There are different ways to dedicate things to the Lord's use, and the chapter is going about explaining how to redeem various things, and the different kinds of dedications. Vv. 2-13 pertain to vows, and within that vv. 2-8 to the dedication of persons. 3-7 pertains to money. 9-13 is about animals. 14-25 is about houses or lands. V. 21 is about priest property. 28-29 are about herem. 31-33 about the tithe. So these are different categories and different treatments of "dedicated things" in different situations.

When you say Leviticus 27:28 is about herem, are you implying the verse isn't denoting the dedication of persons, animals, and family land specifically mentioned in previous verses throughout Leviticus 27? If so, then what type of person, animal, or family land was Leviticus 27:28 referring to? Anything the Israelites liberated from the hands of their enemies? If so, then why is "family land" mentioned in the verse when it should have been foreign land?
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Re: Leviticus 27 and a perceived contradiction

Postby jimwalton » Tue Jul 31, 2018 9:06 pm

> When you say Leviticus 27:28 is about herem, are you implying the verse isn't denoting the dedication of persons, animals, and family land specifically mentioned in previous verses throughout Leviticus 27?

That's correct. Verse 28 starts a different category: things not merely dedicated, but those things removed from human use (herem). You'll notice that the dedicated things throughout the chapter have valuations, but in 28-29, not so.

> If so, then what type of person, animal, or family land was Leviticus 27:28 referring to?

For instance, if the owner of a piece of land failed to redeem it from debt, the title deed would pass to the priests and it would become their permanent property (removed from human use, now solely for the use of the temple and its keepers). A landowner could also give his property to the temple. Sometimes such lands were used for grazing the bulls for future sacrifice. Sometimes the land was cleared of inhabitants and left empty—removed from human use.

Herem food could be eaten by the priests and their families (Num. 18).

Vessels like pitchers or plates would become the property of the temple and for its sole use as well. David consigned his precious metal spoils to God (1 Sam. 8.10-11). Hannah gave her son to temple service (1 Sam. 1-3). Nothing given to the priests/temple with this intent could ever be sold, even by the priests.

As far as the persons of v. 29, these were criminals whose acts could not be expiated through sacrifice, nor were they eligible for redemption by their families or clans. These may not be ransomed but must be executed by the State.


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