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[Tornado]

2 questions regarding God's morality (since he's supposedly all good)

1: If we could recognize the immorality of slavery, but God couldn’t/ would that mean he's not entirely good or all knowing?

2: Can God still be all good even after there are various examples of people being killed because of him?

[jimwalton]

> If we could recognize the immorality of slavery, but God couldn’t/ would that mean he's not entirely good or all knowing?

God never commanded slavery, never affirmed it, and never endorsed it. It was a human invention, and God was always against it (Dt. 5.6; Isa. 61.1). So why would the existence (and the immorality) of slavery be a detriment to God's morality?

> Can God still be all good even after there are various examples of people being killed because of him?

It depends what you mean by this, but the answer is still yes. If you subscribe to the concept and implementation of justice, then you admit to the idea that sometimes proper judgment includes death (for instance, war criminals like Hitler and Mengele, or serial rapists or child sex abusers). It is not immoral for a to pronounce harsh judgment when it is warranted.