by jimwalton » Mon Feb 20, 2017 11:07 am
Again (for the 5th time), no, that's not the case. God did punish David. The conclusion is the child died. The reason is God's displeasure with David's adultery. The action is that God was judging David. But...
1. Did God kill the baby?
2. Did God know the baby was sick and didn't intervene to protect it? In other words, he let nature take its course (which he often does).
The text is about judgment on David, but not on anyone else (none of the 4 sons). The focus of the text is on David.
The text makes no mention of saying, "Oh, now God is satisfied." The death of the child was not an appeasement. Nor does the text say God was demanding life (the baby) for a life (Uriah). As I said before, "It was perceived, along with the eventual deaths (by completely different and unrelated means) of 3 more of David’s sons, as David's punishment for his adultery with Bathsheba. That's what makes it justice. The text is concerned to show us that David is paying for his sin with his family (four of his offspring, and therefore 'eye for eye' for adultery) going to ruin and his heart being filled with unquenchable grief."
The Bible is clear that there is always collateral damage for people's sins. Sometimes its obvious and sometimes not, but there always is. There's no such thing as privately contained sin. This story makes very clear that sin always has ramifications for those around us. Much of it is what we would call "natural consequences." Those are words we would use, but not words the ancients would use. The ancients' expression for is would be "God struck the child." How could this be natural consequences? I cannily speculate, but, for instance, while Bathsheba was pregnant with the child, she learned of the death of her husband. Did this gut-wrenching grief happen at a particularly formative period of fetal development? We don't know, but such things are always possible. We know all about fetal development, so we know that's half-reasonable to assume. So did God kill the child, or did David?
David himself had pronounced this judgment, ironically on himself. Look earlier in the chapter, at 2 Sam. 2.5-6. David thought it was fair and just that the death of one be compensated by the death of 4. As it turns out, David had killed Uriah, and four of David's own sons died. So did God kill the child unjustly, or had David pronounced the sentence himself, and God said, "As you wish"?