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[Psycho]

Why does Peter not baptise in the name of the Father, son and the Holy Spirit in acts 2:38?

[jimwalton]

John the Baptist baptized in the name of the Father. Peter was probably making sure that people understood a transition from John the Baptist (Acts 18.25; 19.3) to the baptism of Jesus. Here in Jerusalem, so soon after Jesus' resurrection (and with the memory of John still in many people minds), and with many people still thinking they are following John the Baptist, Peter was drawing a distinguishing line to create a mental and theological separation. It is under the authority of Jesus that people are being immersed, and this baptism has nothing to do with John's.