Christians: Did Hitler's Authority Come from God, or is Romans 13 untrue?
> Let everyone be subject to the governing authorities, for there is no authority except that which God has established.
Romans 13:1a (NIV)
Let me start by giving a little background: I would LIKE to consider myself a Christian, but I don't know if I can believe that all parts of the modern Bible are absolutely true and correct. This seems to be a dealbreaker for pretty much any kind of contemporary Christianity, and yet in a sense I feel like a Christian anyway because I pray, I believe in Incarnation, Sacrifice, and Resurrection, and I pursue a personal relationship with God. So this is a personal - not merely an intellectual - question and problem for me.
Romans 13 clearly states that government authority is to be accepted unquestioningly, on the basis that " the authorities are God’s servants" (verse 6b).
And yet, it was collusion between the Pharisees (Jewish authorities) and Pilate (a Roman authority) that ordered Jesus' crucifixion, and the Roman Centurions (enforcers of Roman authority) who physically carried out the public torture, humiliation, and execution of the Savior. The Savior, we know, had to be crucified for the Sins of Mankind. It does not make any sense that God the Father would appoint the very authorities that would command God's Only Begotten Son to be crucified:
if it were the case that God the Father appointed the Pharisees and Pilate as authorities, then God the Father would essentially be endorsing the Sins of Mankind. God the Father would be taking a side against God the Son. This simply makes no sense! I'm sorry, but I don't think that any possible explanation exists to square this circle. You simply cannot prove or explain how God favors the Sins of Mankind over God's Only Begotten Son.
To me, this is proof that Romans 13 is untrue and incorrect.
Another example...
> " whoever rebels against the authority is rebelling against what God has instituted" (verse 2)
So, I suppose that Jesus rebelled against what God instituted? Because Jesus certainly, unarguably rebelled against the Pharisees throughout his ministry and the money-changers in the Temple on at least one occasion.
Again, this doesn't make any sense, and I don't think that sense can be made of it.
Rebellion against authorities is a sin; Jesus himself rebelled against authorities; Jesus was never a sinner - all 3 of these propositions cannot be simultaneously true.
I could go on and on about all the philosophical problems that I have with this text, but I'll try to keep it focused by stopping here. What say you, Christians?