Board index ‹ Specific Bible verses, texts, and passages ‹ Romans

[Mel B]

Hi. Would you be able to explain Romans 2:17-29 to me?

[jimwalton]

Glad to. First, a little background. In Romans 1, Paul showed how Gentiles were pagans who rejected God and deserved judgment. In Romans 2, Paul tackles the Jews, who were so sure of their own righteousness. Paul is letting them know that they are just as sinful as the Gentiles, which would have been a shocking thing to say to a Jew. His point is that where the Gentiles failed in unrighteousness, the Jews have failed in self-righteousness. They somehow think their circumcision and rituals will save them; Paul’s point is that their hearts are just as far from God as those of the pagans. Their hypocrisy is just as condemning as Gentiles’ immorality. Then in chapter 3 Paul will explain that EVERYONE is a sinner and is in need of Jesus.

You’ll read in Romans 2.1 that he’s bracing to condemn the Jews just as he condemned the Gentiles. Verse 5 shows that they are just as sinful and unrepentant as any “pagan” Gentile.

This is where we pick up your verses. Since the Jews have the Law and therefore know God’s will (vv. 17-20), then why are they still sinning, just like any pagan would (vv. 21-23). Any yet they think they have some kind of privilege and therefore are in God’s favor??? Fat chance. Their godlessness puts them in the same position as any godless person (v. 25); their Jewish heritage isn’t going to mitigate their condemnation.

By the same token, even a pagan who is godly will reap God’s blessing. God doesn’t show favoritism (v. 11). A relationship with God is based on one’s godliness, not on one’s ethnic heritage (vv. 28-29). It’s what’s in your heart, not what’s on your birth certificate.