by jimwalton » Fri Mar 22, 2019 11:25 am
> Here's what I said: "Yes, that's the term (הַחֲרֵם). The first "ha" is a part of the verb form."
Here's what you said: "You are wrong. I have look at the translation of cherem and here is the results:" (and you gave a link to an Internet Hebrew English lexicon defining cherem."
The Internet Lexicon you linked me to doesn't prove I'm wrong, so I don't know what your point is. Let's have a discussion, and you can explain it to me. The Hebrew term in Dt. 13.15 (v. 16 in the Hebrew text) is הַחֲרֵם (cherem with a הַ prefix. Here the הַ (the first "ha") is preformative—part of the hiphil verb form; hiphils have a הַ in front of them. So what is it I'm wrong about?
Last bumped by Anonymous on Fri Mar 22, 2019 11:25 am.