Board index ‹ Specific Bible verses, texts, and passages ‹ Deuteronomy

[Pura Vida]

I'm curious why the bible uses the term "god of gods" but the faith stands firm on the principle that there is only 1 god.

[jimwalton]

Costa Rica, eh?

This phrase shows up only 4 times in the Old Testament (Deut. 10.17; Ps. 136.2; Dan. 2.47; 11.36). It's part of the cultural context of the writing. Titles were popular in the ancient Near East. Calling someone the king of kings, lord of lords, or god of gods was a way of attributing the highest honor. It occurs in a Philistine letter to an Egyptian Pharaoh (of a human king), and also found as a title in Phoenician. The exact title "lord of lords" is found in Assyrian texts when referring to their great king. Ezekiel 26.7 uses it of the supreme rulers of the East. In other words, it just a title of exaltation.

When Nebuchadnezzar uses it in Daniel 2.47, he is acclaiming YHWH as supreme over all other gods, including his Babylonian deities.

Other similar phrases (like "king of kings" and "Lord of lords") also occur. In similar fashion, it's imperial rhetoric. "Lord of lords and King of kings" (as we read in Rev. 17.14) just means that Jesus is the only sovereign potentate. It's a statement of indisputable authority.

[Pura Vida]

Yes, very beautiful. Thank you.

Very well explained, thanks. I understand now.