You continue to persist in your misunderstandings, which is certainly your prerogative.
> God is clearly separating people by groups
God didn't separate people by people groups, people did. People divided themselves into communities by clan and ethnicity, and God addresses them the way they self-identify, and in a way that we all know what God is talking about. That doesn't make God discriminatory, back to your original question.
> then calling for their killing (which by ALL definitions) is genocide
His first course of action was to incorporate them into the national of Israel. They chose against that. His secondary purpose was to drive them out of the land. They chose against that. His tertiary purpose was to be rid of their religious lies and influence against truth. Then he called for their killing, but not to genocide. War and genocide are different things.
> Would you accept the same mental contortions from a Muslim who tries to reengineer the definition of 'pedophilia' to exclude Mohamed?
Of course not. (1) They're two different things, and (2) I'm not doing mental contortions. Just solid research.
> would even need to partake in such petty human crimes
He didn't.
> and prejudice
He didn't.
> because you look to justify those barbaric acts
I don't.
> And we still have the problem of God suspending free will
He didn't. Their free will was functioning the whole time, and that's how they ended up on the wrong side of the sword.