by jimwalton » Tue Jun 14, 2022 10:38 am
Of course He did. But where does the text say that God was "fully revealed" in the Torah? As we trace God's revelation of Himself to Abraham, we see separate theophanies, each with a different kind of revelation (Gn. 12: voice; Gn. 12: protection; Gn. 13: through Melchizedek; Gn. 15: in a vision; Gn. 17 by covenant; Gn. 22 by challenge). Which of these claims to be "full revelation"? And is there nothing more that God can reveal to Abraham?
Same with Moses. We see many theophanies, each with a different kind of revelation (burning bush; miracles; Sinai, etc.). But we still don't have a full revelation. God reveals more to David later. He reveals more to Isaiah later.
I'm still challenging you to substantiate your claim that God was fully revealed in the Torah and that there is nothing left to be revealed.