> absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
> You cannot say this with any certainty. It's an argument from silence.
This is a commonly-recited proposition even more commonly misapplied. The absence of expected evidence is regularly and appropriately taken as evidence of absence, in much the same way as I know there's not a tiger in my office chair right now because I'm sitting in it and I don't see a tiger. This is what I was getting at when I invoked the notion of "negative evidence."
Arguments from silence are only weak evidence where the silence is somewhat expected even on the assumption that the unattested event actually occurred. That's not what we're dealing with when you talk about an event like the biblical Exodus myth. If over a million people recently (in geologic and archaeological terms) wandered the Sinai peninsula for forty years, there would be no argument from silence because we'd have discovered artifacts and other such evidence that they were there. If a slave population that comprised a significant percentage of the total population of Egypt had escaped, followed by the subsequent deaths of the Pharaoh and much of his army in the course of pursuing them, it would almost certainly have been recorded by someone in Egypt. Instead, we find no mention of any such slave population ever existing at all.
If you've found evidence that the Exodus actually occurred, you shouldn't be directing your wall of text at me. You should be publishing it and collecting your Nobel prize. Until then, however, I'm skeptical: Elevating faith commitments over evidence is just not a reliable way of learning true information about the world and its history.
> Empiricism is not the only path to knowledge, even when dealing with history.
Fundamentally speaking, it actually is. Deduction is a great way of determining whether the assumed truth of a premise or set of premises necessarily entails the truth of some conclusion, but outside of those instances where some proposition can be shown to lead to a contradiction, empirical investigation is the only workable means of determining whether your premises are true.
> You may be thinking that in the brutality of war, she would not marry him because she loved him but only because she was forced by the situation and survival.
No, I'm thinking that if a soldier thought she was attractive, he'd grab her and carry her off whether she felt like going anywhere or not. Nothing about this was ever optional for the women. Whether she was to be taken back to Israel, and whether she was to be married to and subsequently penetrated by some guy who just killed her family, was decided without her input. In other words, she was treated as property and raped.
> She was not considered as property, and she was not raped, and I've given you many proofs of it.
You appear to have conceded that these women are being married to and penetrated by their captors without their consent ever being sought or obtained. If that's not an admission that this practice entails rape, I don't know what ever possibly could be. Are you arguing that it doesn't fall within the operative definition of rape typically used by bronze age Hebrews? That may or may not be true, but is also completely irrelevant to whether it was actually rape. I'm intentionally applying our more sophisticated modern standards of ethics here, without deference to the savagery of the biblical authors and their societies. Whether bronze age rapists realized they were rapists is plainly irrelevant to their actual status as rapists.
I completely agree these are modern thoughts, and not ancient Near Eastern ones. The fact that we no longer sanction treating women as property and raping female captives is one of the ways in which society has improved since Old Testament times.