> It's true that Matthew uses a lot of prophecies and that he is writing to legitimize Jesus aimed at a Jewish audience. So I perceive his writing intent as purposeful, whereas you perceive his writing intent as malicious
Its nitpicking but malicious is the wrong word, I think its propoganda. If he believes Jesus is who he said he was than its not malicious to want people to follow him, its actually quite nice of him.
> The weakness of this perspective is that Matthew used "prophecies" that were never perceived as Messianic prophecies, such as Isaiah 7.14, so I can't agree with your assessment. Matthew isn't just rolling down the text and checking off boxes; instead, he sees what happened in history and he's searching the Scriptures (under the superintendency of the Holy Spirit to see what's true (cf. Acts 17.11, and we might assume Paul was doing the same thing for 14 years in Gal. 2.1).
I don't know how this is a weakness? It kind of bolsters my case that Matthew was combing the scriptures to make Jesus legitimate, The Isiah 7:14 was not referring to Jesus as it was made 700 years prior to king Ahaz as a sign for King Ahaz. But it was enough for Jesus as the title Immanuel is fitting, and the virgin birth probably was part of some of the oral traditions of Jesus. the Hebrew used for "virgin" is ambiguous and could just as easily denote a young women pre marriage (assumed virgin). From the skeptics view we have Matthew stretching a prophecy meant for 700 years prior to fit Jesus, then creating a plot point to get him to egypt for another prophecy, but because Luke is not concerned with prophecy he just wrongly dictates the happenings after Jesus' birth? Since he no doubt has Matthew in front of him why would he omit this, maybe there was competing traditions of the reports of events after his death and Matthew put it in to fulfill prophecy. Can you offer a more reasonable hypothesis?
> (1) We have very little information about the registration/census in Palestine, and even in Rome. (2) The information we DO have comes from one source, Josephus, and it's a questionable source. (3) We do find a similar kind of situation in Egypt that might help us understand. We have only a keyhole view of the situation, so we bring whatever information we have to bear on it to try to yield a little understanding. We don't have much, but the little we have doesn't prove Luke to be false.
We have lots of historical information that leads us to believe this census never happened, It was mentioned in a comment below how the timelines for the claims in Matthew don't line up with documented history. Aside from historical contradiction we have logical contradictions, you asked if I thought they expected everyone in the line of David to report to a small village just for the census, the answer is no, I do not think they expected that, that's one of the reasons I don't think this happened in history, because its unreasonable. The only way to make it reasonable is to move beyond the text and make large assumptions that contradict what the text says, like Joseph owning land.
> You're missing my consistency. If the text doesn't say it, we don't take a stand on it. If the text doesn't say she rode a donkey, we don't assume a donkey. If the text doesn't say Joseph owned land there, we can't assume he did.
Right, So why was he in Bethlehem for the census? The text tells us why.
> But she had to get from Nazareth to Bethlehem in some way. We presume cart, donkey, or walking. With Joseph being a carpenter, we might expect he owned a cart and a pull animal. We also know that people in that day, era, and region often walked, so they might not have thought a second thing about it; it was not considered a burden. We don't know how preggo she was, and was also know that for some women pregnancy is the best time of their lives and for others, the worst. The average person walks 2-3 mph, so for a 7-hr day, they could make 20 miles in a day. Joe and Mary could make the 100-mi trip in less than a week, even at a slow pace. The fact is, we don't know how she traveled, but these scenarios are not unlikely, uncommon, or unreasonable.
> Sure, I'll grant that.
> Neither Philo nor Josephus—very prominent writers of the era—mention Emperor Claudius's expulsion fo all Jews from Rome in c. AD 49-50. Only Suetonius and Luke mention it, and each give it only one line. For a modern example, Ronald Reagan, in his autobiography, wrote only 2 sentences about his first marriage, from which two of his children were born! So we can't conclude Josephus "would have almost certainly mentioned it" if it were true, since he didn't mention the Claudius expulsion, of MUCH more import to him as a Jewish-Roman historian. So this logic doesn't hold.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Massacre_of_the_Innocents I know its Wikipedia but this is well sourced, experts say this didn't happen for multiple reasons.
> Yes, he was 5 centuries later, but still assessed by experts as a reliable historian. I've read biographies of Martin Luther, who was also 500 years ago. Should I trust them, or just reject them outright just because it's 500 years?
For me it really depends on the 500 yrs, the years of the first 5 centuries CE are very very spotty, and we should hold even the most well attested ancient historical claim lightly. Also its important to note that by 500 CE Christianity was the state religion, so does it surprise me a state historian took Christian historical claims as historical fact, no, we do history much better these days as we have the benefit of the historical method.