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[Soggy Bread]

How did the Original Sin occur if Original Sin is the root of all other sins? i.e., How did sin come to exist if what catalyzes sin is a 1st sin?

If I can make an analogy --

A factory has a sign that says '8 days since the last accident', which increments by 1 each day that's accident free.

A long-time worker at the factory alleges "Accidents didn't happen until Bob broke his thumb back in 2009 shortly after the factory opened. After that, a bunch of accidents started occurring."

And so Bob attributes that all accidents are rooted from 'the Original Accident'.

My question is what does Original Sin have to do with subsequent sins, if by the Original Sin occurring, we know that sin existing is not a prerequisite for sin to occur? Likewise, the Original Accident of the factory is not the cause subsequent factory accidents, and other factory accidents are not rooted from the Original Accident.

[jimwalton]

Genesis 3 is not about sin, let alone the theology of "original sin." It's about order and disorder. Neither the Old Testament nor the New Testament refer to Genesis 3 as the “Fall.” This is not about a Fall. This is not about the beginning of sin. This is about that all of us sin; it’s not about the beginning of sin that becomes a sequence. It’s about how all of us sin. But it’s not even about how all of us sin, it’s about how "all of us, like sheep, have gone astray. We have turned every one to his own way." Even Augustine, the first theologian to postulate a doctrine of original sin, talks about sin as a recurvature back on yourself.

In other words, we don't sin because Adam did, we sin because we have a sin nature. Adam's sin didn't cause subsequent sin. We sin because it's the human condition. We are separated from God, we fall short of His glory, and we need a redeemer.